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CRISC Exam Dumps - Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC)

Question # 4

Which strategy employed by risk management would BEST help to prevent internal fraud?

A.

Require control owners to conduct an annual control certification.

B.

Conduct regular internal and external audits on the systems supporting financial reporting.

C.

Ensure segregation of duties are implemented within key systems or processes.

D.

Require the information security officer to review unresolved incidents.

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Question # 5

Which of the following is MOST important requirement to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor contract to ensure data is protected?

A.

The vendor must provide periodic independent assurance reports.

B.

The vendor must host data in a specific geographic location.

C.

The vendor must be held liable for regulatory fines for failure to protect data.

D.

The vendor must participate in an annual vendor performance review.

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Question # 6

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to report changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management?

A.

To ensure risk owners understand their responsibilities

B.

To ensure IT risk is managed within acceptable limits

C.

To ensure the organization complies with legal requirements

D.

To ensure the IT risk awareness program is effective

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Question # 7

Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?

A.

Threat event

B.

Vulnerability event

C.

Technical event

D.

Loss event

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Question # 8

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of consistently recording risk assessment results in the risk register?

A.

Assessment of organizational risk appetite

B.

Compliance with best practice

C.

Accountability for loss events

D.

Accuracy of risk profiles

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Question # 9

Continuous monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs) will:

A.

ensure that risk will not exceed the defined risk appetite of the organization.

B.

provide an early warning so that proactive action can be taken.

C.

provide a snapshot of the risk profile.

D.

ensure that risk tolerance and risk appetite are aligned.

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Question # 10

Which of the following presents the GREATEST privacy risk related to personal data processing for a global organization?

A.

Privacy risk awareness training has not been conducted across the organization.

B.

The organization has not incorporated privacy into its risk management framework.

C.

The organization allows staff with access to personal data to work remotely.

D.

Personal data processing occurs in an offshore location with a data sharing agreement.

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Question # 11

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action to foster an ethical, risk-aware culture?

A.

Implement a fraud detection and prevention framework.

B.

Ensure the alignment of the organization's policies and standards to the defined risk appetite.

C.

Establish an enterprise-wide ethics training and awareness program.

D.

Perform a comprehensive review of all applicable legislative frameworks and requirements.

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Question # 12

An organization has allowed several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs Many of these employees have been subject matter experts for critical assets Which type of risk is MOST likely to materialize?

A.

Confidentiality breach

B.

Institutional knowledge loss

C.

Intellectual property loss

D.

Unauthorized access

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Question # 13

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to communicate control effectiveness to senior management?

A.

To demonstrate alignment with industry best practices

B.

To assure management that control ownership is assigned

C.

To ensure management understands the current risk status

D.

To align risk management with strategic objectives

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Question # 14

A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

A.

based on industry trends.

B.

mapped to incident response plans.

C.

related to probable events.

D.

aligned with risk management capabilities.

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Question # 15

Which of the following is the MOST important update for keeping the risk register current?

A.

Modifying organizational structures when lines of business merge

B.

Adding new risk assessment results annually

C.

Retiring risk scenarios that have been avoided

D.

Changing risk owners due to employee turnover

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Question # 16

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRIs) should be revised?

A.

An increase in the number of risk threshold exceptions

B.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

C.

A decrease in the number of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

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Question # 17

Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to cause a risk practitioner to request a formal risk acceptance sign-off?

A.

Residual risk in excess of the risk appetite cannot be mitigated.

B.

Inherent risk is too high, resulting in the cancellation of an initiative.

C.

Risk appetite has changed to align with organizational objectives.

D.

Residual risk remains at the same level over time without further mitigation.

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Question # 18

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of a key risk indicator (KRI) to enable decision-making?

A.

Monitoring the risk until the exposure is reduced

B.

Setting minimum sample sizes to ensure accuracy

C.

Listing alternative causes for risk events

D.

Illustrating changes in risk trends

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Question # 19

An organization has been experiencing an increasing number of spear phishing attacks Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to mitigate the risk associated with these attacks?

A.

Update firewall configuration

B.

Require strong password complexity

C.

implement a security awareness program

D.

Implement two-factor authentication

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Question # 20

Which of the following is the MOST important document regarding the treatment of sensitive data?

A.

Organization risk profile

B.

Information classification policy

C.

Encryption policy

D.

Digital rights management policy

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Question # 21

An organization has contracted with a cloud service provider to support the deployment of a new product. Of the following, who should own the associated risk?

A.

The head of enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

The IT risk manager

C.

The information security manager

D.

The product owner

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Question # 22

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the value of an asset during the risk identification process?

A.

The criticality of the asset

B.

The vulnerability profile of the asset

C.

The monetary value of the asset

D.

The size of the asset's user base

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Question # 23

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control?

A.

Scope of the control coverage

B.

The number of exceptions granted

C.

Number of steps necessary to operate process

D.

Number of control deviations detected

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Question # 24

A risk practitioner is advising management on how to update the IT policy framework to account for the organization s cloud usage. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in this process?

A.

Consult with industry peers regarding cloud best practices.

B.

Evaluate adherence to existing IT policies and standards.

C.

Determine gaps between the current state and target framework.

D.

Adopt an industry-leading cloud computing framework.

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Question # 25

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to trace the impact of aggregated risk across an organization's technical environment?

A.

Business case documentation

B.

Organizational risk appetite statement

C.

Enterprise architecture (EA) documentation

D.

Organizational hierarchy

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Question # 26

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting a risk workshop using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach is the ability to:

A.

identify specific project risk.

B.

obtain a holistic view of IT strategy risk.

C.

understand risk associated with complex processes.

D.

incorporate subject matter expertise.

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Question # 27

Which of the following is the MOST essential factor for managing risk in a highly dynamic environment?

A.

Ongoing sharing of information among industry peers

B.

Obtaining support from senior leadership

C.

Adhering to industry-recognized risk management standards

D.

Implementing detection and response measures

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Question # 28

An application development team has a backlog of user requirements for a new system that will process insurance claim payments for customers. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for a risk-based review of the user requirements?

A.

Number of claims affected by the user requirements

B.

Number of customers impacted

C.

Impact to the accuracy of claim calculation

D.

Level of resources required to implement the user requirements

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Question # 29

Which of the following BEST enables the development of a successful IT strategy focused on business risk mitigation?

A.

Providing risk awareness training for business units

B.

Obtaining input from business management

C.

Understanding the business controls currently in place

D.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 30

A risk practitioner has established that a particular control is working as desired, but the annual cost of maintenance has increased and now exceeds the expected annual loss exposure. The result is that the control is:

A.

mature

B.

ineffective.

C.

optimized.

D.

inefficient.

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Question # 31

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate a new cloud-based service to enhance an organization's access management capabilities. When is the BEST time for the risk practitioner to provide opinions on control strength?

A.

After the initial design

B.

Before production rollout

C.

After a few weeks in use

D.

Before end-user testing

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Question # 32

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations?

A.

Variances between organizational risk appetites

B.

Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios

C.

Disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems

D.

Dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols

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Question # 33

Which of the following is MOST likely to introduce risk for financial institutions that use blockchain?

A.

Cost of implementation

B.

Implementation of unproven applications

C.

Disruption to business processes

D.

Increase in attack surface area

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Question # 34

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Review assignments of data ownership for key assets.

B.

Identify staff who have access to the organization’s sensitive data.

C.

Identify recent and historical incidents involving data loss.

D.

Review the organization's data inventory.

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Question # 35

A data center has recently been migrated to a jurisdiction where heavy fines will be imposed should leakage of customer personal data occur. Assuming no other changes to the operating environment, which factor should be updated to reflect this situation as an input to scenario development for this particular risk event?

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk impact

C.

Risk capacity

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 36

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address recent IT risk trends that indicate social engineering attempts are increasing in the organization?

A.

Conduct a simulated phishing attack.

B.

Update spam filters

C.

Revise the acceptable use policy

D.

Strengthen disciplinary procedures

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Question # 37

What is senior management's role in the RACI model when tasked with reviewing monthly status reports provided by risk owners?

A.

Accountable

B.

Informed

C.

Responsible

D.

Consulted

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Question # 38

Which of the following provides the MOST useful input to the development of realistic risk scenarios?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk map

D.

Risk events

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Question # 39

When confirming whether implemented controls are operating effectively, which of the following is MOST important to review?

A.

Results of benchmarking studies

B.

Results of risk assessments

C.

Number of emergency change requests

D.

Maturity model

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Question # 40

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when reviewing an organization's risk register?

A.

Risk ownership is recorded.

B.

Vulnerabilities have separate entries.

C.

Control ownership is recorded.

D.

Residual risk is less than inherent risk.

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Question # 41

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s NEXT step? r

A.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

B.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

C.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

D.

Update the risk register with the results.

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Question # 42

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

A.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the internal control environment

B.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

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Question # 43

Which of the following has the GREATEST positive impact on ethical compliance within the risk management process?

A.

Senior management demonstrates ethics in their day-to-day decision making.

B.

An independent ethics investigation team has been established.

C.

Employees are required to complete ethics training courses annually.

D.

The risk practitioner is required to consult with the ethics committee.

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Question # 44

An organization retains footage from its data center security camera for 30 days when the policy requires 90-day retention The business owner challenges whether the situation is worth remediating Which of the following is the risk manager s BEST response'

A.

Identify the regulatory bodies that may highlight this gap

B.

Highlight news articles about data breaches

C.

Evaluate the risk as a measure of probable loss

D.

Verify if competitors comply with a similar policy

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Question # 45

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action for a risk practitioner when reviewing the results of control performance monitoring?

A.

Evaluate changes to the organization's risk profile.

B.

Validate whether the controls effectively mitigate risk.

C.

Confirm controls achieve regulatory compliance.

D.

Analyze appropriateness of key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 46

During a review of the asset life cycle process, a risk practitioner identified several unreturned and unencrypted laptops belonging to former employees. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this finding?

A.

Insufficient laptops for existing employees

B.

Abuse of leavers' account privileges

C.

Unauthorized access to organizational data

D.

Financial cost of replacing the laptops

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Question # 47

Risk mitigation is MOST effective when which of the following is optimized?

A.

Operational risk

B.

Residual risk

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Regulatory risk

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Question # 48

Within the three lines of defense model, the responsibility for managing risk and controls resides with:

A.

operational management.

B.

the risk practitioner.

C.

the internal auditor.

D.

executive management.

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Question # 49

A failure in an organization s IT system build process has resulted in several computers on the network missing the corporate endpoint detection and response (EDR) software. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner’s IMMEDIATE concern?

A.

Multiple corporate build images exist.

B.

The process documentation was not updated.

C.

The IT build process was not followed.

D.

Threats are not being detected.

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Question # 50

A legacy application used for a critical business function relies on software that has reached the end of extended support Which of the following is the MOST effective control to manage this application?

A.

Subscribe to threat intelligence to monitor external attacks.

B.

Apply patches for a newer version of the application.

C.

Segment the application within the existing network.

D.

Increase the frequency of regular system and data backups.

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Question # 51

Which of the following is the BEST method for determining an enterprise's current appetite for risk?

A.

Comparative analysis of peer companies

B.

Reviews of brokerage firm assessments

C.

Interviews with senior management

D.

Trend analysis using prior annual reports

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Question # 52

Which of the following BEST enables the timely detection of changes in the security control environment?

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Log analysis

C.

Security control reviews

D.

Random sampling checks

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Question # 53

One of an organization's key IT systems cannot be patched because the patches interfere with critical business application functionalities. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

A.

Additional mitigating controls should be identified.

B.

The system should not be used until the application is changed

C.

The organization's IT risk appetite should be adjusted.

D.

The associated IT risk should be accepted by management.

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Question # 54

Who should be accountable for authorizing information system access to internal users?

A.

Information security officer

B.

Information security manager

C.

Information custodian

D.

Information owner

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Question # 55

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that regulatory authorities have concerns with an emerging technology the organization is considering?

A.

Redesign key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Update risk responses.

C.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

D.

Perform a threat assessment.

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Question # 56

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for the board and senior leadership

regarding the organization's approach to risk management for emerging technologies?

A.

Ensuring the organization follows risk management industry best practices

B.

Ensuring IT risk scenarios are updated and include emerging technologies

C.

Ensuring the risk framework and policies are suitable for emerging technologies

D.

Ensuring threat intelligence services are used to gather data about emerging technologies

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Question # 57

Which of the following is the BEST control for a large organization to implement to effectively mitigate risk related to fraudulent transactions?

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Monetary approval limits

C.

Clear roles and responsibilities

D.

Password policies

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Question # 58

Which of the following BEST mitigates ethical risk?

A.

Ethics committees

B.

Contingency scenarios

C.

Awareness of consequences for violations

D.

Routine changes in senior management

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Question # 59

An organization has established workflows in its service desk to support employee reports of security-related concerns. Which of the following is the MOST efficient approach to analyze these concerns?

A.

Map concerns to organizational assets.

B.

Sort concerns by likelihood.

C.

Align concerns to key vendors.

D.

Prioritize concerns based on frequency of reports.

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Question # 60

Which of the following is the MOST important document regarding the treatment of sensitive data?

A.

Encryption policy

B.

Organization risk profile

C.

Digital rights management policy

D.

Information classification policy

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Question # 61

An organizational policy requires critical security patches to be deployed in production within three weeks of patch availability. Which of the following is the BEST metric to verify adherence to the policy?

A.

Maximum time gap between patch availability and deployment

B.

Percentage of critical patches deployed within three weeks

C.

Minimum time gap between patch availability and deployment

D.

Number of critical patches deployed within three weeks

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Question # 62

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure policies and standards are properly documented within the risk management process?

A.

It facilitates the use of a framework for risk management.

B.

It establishes a means for senior management to formally approve risk practices.

C.

It encourages risk-based decision making for stakeholders.

D.

It provides a basis for benchmarking against industry standards.

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Question # 63

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project?

A.

Implement a tool to track the development team's deliverables.

B.

Review the software development life cycle.

C.

Involve the development team in planning.

D.

Assign more developers to the project team.

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Question # 64

A global organization has implemented an application that does not address all privacy requirements across multiple jurisdictions. Which of the following risk responses has the organization adopted with regard to privacy requirements?

A.

Risk avoidance

B.

Risk transfer

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Risk acceptance

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Question # 65

An insurance company handling sensitive and personal information from its customers receives a large volume of telephone requests and electronic communications daily. Which of the following

is MOST important to include in a risk awareness training session for the customer service department?

A.

Archiving sensitive information

B.

Understanding the incident management process

C.

Identifying social engineering attacks

D.

Understanding the importance of using a secure password

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Question # 66

Which of the following is the MOST useful information an organization can obtain from external sources about emerging threats?

A.

Solutions for eradicating emerging threats

B.

Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats

C.

Indicators for detecting the presence of threatsl)

D.

Source and identity of attackers

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Question # 67

A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:

A.

updating the risk register.

B.

validating the risk scenarios.

C.

documenting the risk scenarios.

D.

identifying risk mitigation controls.

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Question # 68

Which of the following scenarios is MOST important to communicate to senior management?

A.

Accepted risk scenarios with detailed plans for monitoring

B.

Risk scenarios that have been shared with vendors and third parties

C.

Accepted risk scenarios with impact exceeding the risk tolerance

D.

Risk scenarios that have been identified, assessed, and responded to by the risk owners

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Question # 69

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a disaster recovery management (DRM) framework and related processes?

A.

Restoring IT and cybersecurity operations

B.

Assessing the impact and probability of disaster scenarios

C.

Ensuring timely recovery of critical business operations

D.

Determining capacity for alternate sites

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Question # 70

A risk practitioner has reviewed new international regulations and realizes the new regulations will affect the organization. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT course of

action?

A.

Conduct a peer response assessment.

B.

Update risk scenarios in the risk register.

C.

Reevaluate the risk management program.

D.

Ensure applications are compliant.

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Question # 71

A hospital recently implemented a new technology to allow virtual patient appointments. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Reassess the risk profile.

B.

Modify the risk taxonomy.

C.

Increase the risk tolerance.

D.

Review the risk culture.

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Question # 72

Which of the following offers the SIMPLEST overview of changes in an organization's risk profile?

A.

A risk roadmap

B.

A balanced scorecard

C.

A heat map

D.

The risk register

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Question # 73

Which of the following is MOST important for managing ethical risk?

A.

Involving senior management in resolving ethical disputes

B.

Developing metrics to trend reported ethics violations

C.

Identifying the ethical concerns of each stakeholder

D.

Establishing a code of conduct for employee behavior

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Question # 74

In a public company, which group is PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring sufficient attention and resources are applied to the risk management process?

A.

Board of directors

B.

Risk officers

C.

Line management

D.

Senior management

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Question # 75

Which of the following analyses is MOST useful for prioritizing risk scenarios associated with loss of IT assets?

A.

SWOT analysis

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 76

Which of the following is the MOST significant indicator of the need to perform a penetration test?

A.

An increase in the number of high-risk audit findings

B.

An increase in the number of security incidents

C.

An increase in the percentage of turnover in IT personnel

D.

An increase in the number of infrastructure changes

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Question # 77

Which of the following will BEST ensure that controls adequately support business goals and objectives?

A.

Using the risk management process

B.

Enforcing strict disciplinary procedures in case of noncompliance

C.

Reviewing results of the annual company external audit

D.

Adopting internationally accepted controls

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Question # 78

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern if user acceptance testing (UAT) is not conducted when implementing a new application?

A.

The probability of application defects will increase

B.

Data confidentiality could be compromised

C.

Increase in the use of redundant processes

D.

The application could fail to meet defined business requirements

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Question # 79

Which of the following is the MOST important criteria for selecting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Historical data availability

B.

Implementation and reporting effort

C.

Ability to display trends

D.

Sensitivity and reliability

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Question # 80

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation of a risk practitioner for an organization that recently changed its organizational structure?

A.

Communicate the new risk profile.

B.

Implement a new risk assessment process.

C.

Revalidate the corporate risk appetite.

D.

Review and adjust key risk indicators (KRIs).

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Question # 81

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce the potential for inappropriate exposure of vulnerabilities documented in an organization's risk register?

A.

Limit access to senior management only.

B.

Encrypt the risk register.

C.

Implement role-based access.

D.

Require users to sign a confidentiality agreement.

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Question # 82

A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations.

B.

Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis.

C.

Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers.

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Question # 83

The percentage of unpatched systems is a:

A.

threat vector.

B.

critical success factor (CSF).

C.

key performance indicator (KPI).

D.

key risk indicator (KRI).

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Question # 84

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the value of an asset during the risk identification process?

A.

The criticality of the asset

B.

The monetary value of the asset

C.

The vulnerability profile of the asset

D.

The size of the asset's user base

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Question # 85

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure how effectively risk management practices are embedded in the project management office (PMO)?

A.

Percentage of projects with key risk accepted by the project steering committee

B.

Reduction in risk policy noncompliance findings

C.

Percentage of projects with developed controls on scope creep

D.

Reduction in audits involving external risk consultants

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Question # 86

An organization has been made aware of a newly discovered critical vulnerability in a regulatory reporting system. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Perform an impact assessment.

B.

Perform a penetration test.

C.

Request an external audit.

D.

Escalate the risk to senior management.

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Question # 87

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of promoting a risk-aware culture within an organization?

A.

Better understanding of the risk appetite

B.

Improving audit results

C.

Enabling risk-based decision making

D.

Increasing process control efficiencies

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Question # 88

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing an organization's risk taxonomy?

A.

Leading industry frameworks

B.

Business context

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

IT strategy

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Question # 89

The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:

A.

implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios.

B.

ensure business unit risk is uniformly distributed.

C.

build a risk profile for management review.

D.

quantify the organization's risk appetite.

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Question # 90

An application owner has specified the acceptable downtime in the event of an incident to be much lower than the actual time required for the response team to recover the application. Which of the following should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Invoke the disaster recovery plan during an incident.

B.

Prepare a cost-benefit analysis of alternatives available

C.

Implement redundant infrastructure for the application.

D.

Reduce the recovery time by strengthening the response team.

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Question # 91

A trusted third-party service provider has determined that the risk of a client's systems being hacked is low. Which of the following would be the client's BEST course of action?

A.

Perform their own risk assessment

B.

Implement additional controls to address the risk.

C.

Accept the risk based on the third party's risk assessment

D.

Perform an independent audit of the third party.

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Question # 92

Which of the following attributes of a key risk indicator (KRI) is MOST important?

A.

Repeatable

B.

Automated

C.

Quantitative

D.

Qualitative

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Question # 93

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A.

Number of users that participated in the DRP testing

B.

Number of issues identified during DRP testing

C.

Percentage of applications that met the RTO during DRP testing

D.

Percentage of issues resolved as a result of DRP testing

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Question # 94

Which of the following IT controls is MOST useful in mitigating the risk associated with inaccurate data?

A.

Encrypted storage of data

B.

Links to source data

C.

Audit trails for updates and deletions

D.

Check totals on data records and data fields

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Question # 95

A contract associated with a cloud service provider MUST include:

A.

ownership of responsibilities.

B.

a business recovery plan.

C.

provision for source code escrow.

D.

the providers financial statements.

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Question # 96

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when multiple risk practitioners capture risk scenarios in a single risk register?

A.

Aligning risk ownership and control ownership

B.

Developing risk escalation and reporting procedures

C.

Maintaining up-to-date risk treatment plans

D.

Using a consistent method for risk assessment

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Question # 97

A risk practitioners PRIMARY focus when validating a risk response action plan should be that risk response:

A.

reduces risk to an acceptable level

B.

quantifies risk impact

C.

aligns with business strategy

D.

advances business objectives.

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Question # 98

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?

A.

Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis

B.

Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls

C.

Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk

D.

Building correlations between logs collected from different sources

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Question # 99

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRls) using log analysis?

A.

Obtaining logs m an easily readable format

B.

Providing accurate logs m a timely manner

C.

Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems

D.

implementing an automated log analysis tool

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Question # 100

Who should be accountable for ensuring effective cybersecurity controls are established?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Security management function

C.

IT management

D.

Enterprise risk function

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Question # 101

The PRIMARY objective for selecting risk response options is to:

A.

reduce risk 10 an acceptable level.

B.

identify compensating controls.

C.

minimize residual risk.

D.

reduce risk factors.

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Question # 102

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes to the risk landscape?

A.

Internal audit reports

B.

Access reviews

C.

Threat modeling

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 103

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

A.

communication

B.

identification.

C.

treatment.

D.

assessment.

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Question # 104

Which of the following is MOST critical when designing controls?

A.

Involvement of internal audit

B.

Involvement of process owner

C.

Quantitative impact of the risk

D.

Identification of key risk indicators

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Question # 105

An organization wants to assess the maturity of its internal control environment. The FIRST step should be to:

A.

validate control process execution.

B.

determine if controls are effective.

C.

identify key process owners.

D.

conduct a baseline assessment.

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Question # 106

Which of the following is the MAIN reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk?

A.

To redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance levels based on changes in risk factors

B.

To update the risk register to reflect changes in levels of identified and new IT-related risk

C.

To ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance

D.

To help identify root causes of incidents and recommend suitable long-term solutions

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Question # 107

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

A.

identification.

B.

treatment.

C.

communication.

D.

assessment

Full Access
Question # 108

Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?

A.

Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts

B.

Average time to provision user accounts

C.

Password reset volume per month

D.

Average account lockout time

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Question # 109

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?

A.

Reviewing the maturity of the control environment

B.

Regularly monitoring the project plan

C.

Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register

D.

Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan

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Question # 110

Risk mitigation procedures should include:

A.

buying an insurance policy.

B.

acceptance of exposures

C.

deployment of counter measures.

D.

enterprise architecture implementation.

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Question # 111

A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?

A.

The organization's strategic risk management projects

B.

Senior management roles and responsibilities

C.

The organizations risk appetite and tolerance

D.

Senior management allocation of risk management resources

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Question # 112

Which of the following is the MOST important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization?

A.

A robust risk aggregation tool set

B.

Clearly defined roles and responsibilities

C.

A well-established risk management committee

D.

Well-documented and communicated escalation procedures

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Question # 113

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?

A.

Corporate incident escalation protocols are established.

B.

Exposure is integrated into the organization's risk profile.

C.

Risk appetite cascades to business unit management

D.

The organization-wide control budget is expanded.

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Question # 114

Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?

A.

Implementing record retention tools and techniques

B.

Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Sending notifications when near storage quota

D.

Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy

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Question # 115

A risk practitioner is summarizing the results of a high-profile risk assessment sponsored by senior management. The BEST way to support risk-based decisions by senior management would be to:

A.

map findings to objectives.

B.

provide quantified detailed analysis

C.

recommend risk tolerance thresholds.

D.

quantify key risk indicators (KRls).

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Question # 116

From a business perspective, which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?

A.

The organization gains assurance it can recover from a disaster

B.

Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery process.

C.

All business-critical systems are successfully tested.

D.

All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives (RTOs).

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Question # 117

Reviewing results from which of the following is the BEST way to identify information systems control deficiencies?

A.

Vulnerability and threat analysis

B.

Control remediation planning

C.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

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Question # 118

Which of the following would BEST ensure that identified risk scenarios are addressed?

A.

Reviewing the implementation of the risk response

B.

Creating a separate risk register for key business units

C.

Performing real-time monitoring of threats

D.

Performing regular risk control self-assessments

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Question # 119

Which of the following BEST describes the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions?

A.

It compares performance levels of IT assets to value delivered.

B.

It facilitates the alignment of strategic IT objectives to business objectives.

C.

It provides input to business managers when preparing a business case for new IT projects.

D.

It helps assess the effects of IT decisions on risk exposure

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Question # 120

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

A.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

B.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including

D.

Trend analysis of risk metrics

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Question # 121

A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months. However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:

A.

a root cause analysis is required

B.

controls are effective for ensuring continuity

C.

hardware needs to be upgraded

D.

no action is required as there was no impact

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Question # 122

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?

A.

Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives

B.

Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review

C.

Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk

D.

Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate

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Question # 123

An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?

A.

The third party s management

B.

The organization's management

C.

The control operators at the third party

D.

The organization's vendor management office

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Question # 124

Which of the following is MOST effective against external threats to an organizations confidential information?

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Data integrity checking

C.

Strong authentication

D.

Intrusion detection system

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Question # 125

Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:

A.

minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment.

B.

aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units.

C.

build a threat profile of the organization for management review.

D.

provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.

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Question # 126

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying new risk exposures due to changes in the business environment?

A.

Standard operating procedures

B.

SWOT analysis

C.

Industry benchmarking

D.

Control gap analysis

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Question # 127

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response?

A.

Align business objectives to the risk profile.

B.

Assess risk against business objectives

C.

Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy.

D.

Explain risk details to management.

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Question # 128

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the automation of control monitoring?

A.

impact due to failure of control

B.

Frequency of failure of control

C.

Contingency plan for residual risk

D.

Cost-benefit analysis of automation

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Question # 129

During the risk assessment of an organization that processes credit cards, a number of existing controls have been found to be ineffective and do not meet industry standards. The overall control environment may still be effective if:

A.

compensating controls are in place.

B.

a control mitigation plan is in place.

C.

risk management is effective.

D.

residual risk is accepted.

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Question # 130

A risk practitioner has observed that there is an increasing trend of users sending sensitive information by email without using encryption. Which of the following would be the MOST effective approach to mitigate the risk associated with data loss?

A.

Implement a tool to create and distribute violation reports

B.

Raise awareness of encryption requirements for sensitive data.

C.

Block unencrypted outgoing emails which contain sensitive data.

D.

Implement a progressive disciplinary process for email violations.

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Question # 131

Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?

A.

The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts

B.

The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk

C.

A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts

D.

The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge

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Question # 132

IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization's risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would

be MOST helpful?

A.

IT risk register

B.

List of key risk indicators

C.

Internal audit reports

D.

List of approved projects

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Question # 133

When using a third party to perform penetration testing, which of the following is the MOST important control to minimize operational impact?

A.

Perform a background check on the vendor.

B.

Require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Require the vendor to have liability insurance.

D.

Clearly define the project scope

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Question # 134

Which of the following would be considered a vulnerability?

A.

Delayed removal of employee access

B.

Authorized administrative access to HR files

C.

Corruption of files due to malware

D.

Server downtime due to a denial of service (DoS) attack

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Question # 135

An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.

A.

The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure

B.

The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract

C.

The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract

D.

The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services

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Question # 136

The analysis of which of the following will BEST help validate whether suspicious network activity is malicious?

A.

Logs and system events

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS) rules

C.

Vulnerability assessment reports

D.

Penetration test reports

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Question # 137

Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?

A.

Testing the transmission of credit card numbers

B.

Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers

C.

Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers

D.

Testing the DLP rule change control process

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Question # 138

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when determining an appropriate risk assessment approach?

A.

Complexity of the IT infrastructure

B.

Value of information assets

C.

Management culture

D.

Threats and vulnerabilities

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Question # 139

Which of the following will BEST quantify the risk associated with malicious users in an organization?

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Threat risk assessment

D.

Vulnerability assessment

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Question # 140

A risk practitioner has determined that a key control does not meet design expectations. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Document the finding in the risk register.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Re-evaluate key risk indicators.

D.

Modify the design of the control.

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Question # 141

Which of the following would be MOST useful when measuring the progress of a risk response action plan?

A.

Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes

C.

Resource expenditure against budget

D.

An up-to-date risk register

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Question # 142

An organization delegates its data processing to the internal IT team to manage information through its applications. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?

A.

Data controllers

B.

Data processors

C.

Data custodians

D.

Data owners

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Question # 143

Which of the following controls will BEST detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator?

A.

Reviewing database access rights

B.

Reviewing database activity logs

C.

Comparing data to input records

D.

Reviewing changes to edit checks

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Question # 144

Which of the following would be a risk practitioners’ BEST recommendation for preventing cyber intrusion?

A.

Establish a cyber response plan

B.

Implement data loss prevention (DLP) tools.

C.

Implement network segregation.

D.

Strengthen vulnerability remediation efforts.

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Question # 145

Which of the following is the BEST method to identify unnecessary controls?

A.

Evaluating the impact of removing existing controls

B.

Evaluating existing controls against audit requirements

C.

Reviewing system functionalities associated with business processes

D.

Monitoring existing key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 146

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the risk associated with the leakage of confidential data?

A.

Maintain and review the classified data inventor.

B.

Implement mandatory encryption on data

C.

Conduct an awareness program for data owners and users.

D.

Define and implement a data classification policy

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Question # 147

Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective way to test a business continuity plan?

A.

Conduct interviews with key stakeholders.

B.

Conduct a tabletop exercise.

C.

Conduct a disaster recovery exercise.

D.

Conduct a full functional exercise.

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Question # 148

Which of the following would provide the BEST guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan?

A.

Risk mitigation budget

B.

Business Impact analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Return on investment

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Question # 149

Which of the following is the PRIMARY factor in determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?

A.

Cost of offsite backup premises

B.

Cost of downtime due to a disaster

C.

Cost of testing the business continuity plan

D.

Response time of the emergency action plan

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Question # 150

A risk practitioner is assisting with the preparation of a report on the organization s disaster recovery (DR) capabilities. Which information would have the MOST impact on the overall recovery profile?

A.

The percentage of systems meeting recovery target times has increased.

B.

The number of systems tested in the last year has increased.

C.

The number of systems requiring a recovery plan has increased.

D.

The percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased.

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Question # 151

A systems interruption has been traced to a personal USB device plugged into the corporate network by an IT employee who bypassed internal control procedures. Of the following, who should be accountable?

A.

Business continuity manager (BCM)

B.

Human resources manager (HRM)

C.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 152

An effective control environment is BEST indicated by controls that:

A.

minimize senior management's risk tolerance.

B.

manage risk within the organization's risk appetite.

C.

reduce the thresholds of key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

are cost-effective to implement

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Question # 153

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate the results of a vulnerability assessment?

A.

Perform a penetration test.

B.

Review security logs.

C.

Conduct a threat analysis.

D.

Perform a root cause analysis.

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Question # 154

An organization has determined a risk scenario is outside the defined risk tolerance level. What should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Develop a compensating control.

B.

Allocate remediation resources.

C.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

Identify risk responses

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Question # 155

Which of the following BEST provides an early warning that network access of terminated employees is not being revoked in accordance with the service level agreement (SLA)?

A.

Updating multi-factor authentication

B.

Monitoring key access control performance indicators

C.

Analyzing access control logs for suspicious activity

D.

Revising the service level agreement (SLA)

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Question # 156

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?

A.

A reduction in the number of help desk calls

B.

An increase in the number of identified system flaws

C.

A reduction in the number of user access resets

D.

An increase in the number of incidents reported

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Question # 157

A data processing center operates in a jurisdiction where new regulations have significantly increased penalties for data breaches. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST important to update to reflect this change?

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk trend

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk likelihood

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Question # 158

Whether the results of risk analyses should be presented in quantitative or qualitative terms should be based PRIMARILY on the:

A.

requirements of management.

B.

specific risk analysis framework being used.

C.

organizational risk tolerance

D.

results of the risk assessment.

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Question # 159

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A.

Alignment to risk responses

B.

Alignment to management reports

C.

Alerts when risk thresholds are reached

D.

Identification of trends

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Question # 160

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events?

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Threat analysis

C.

Risk response analysis

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 161

The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:

A.

create an action plan

B.

assign ownership

C.

review progress reports

D.

perform regular audits.

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Question # 162

A risk practitioner discovers several key documents detailing the design of a product currently in development have been posted on the Internet. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

invoke the established incident response plan.

B.

Inform internal audit.

C.

Perform a root cause analysis

D.

Conduct an immediate risk assessment

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Question # 163

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization?

A.

Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees.

B.

A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access.

C.

A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented.

D.

The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access.

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Question # 164

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?

A.

Identify the potential risk.

B.

Monitor employee usage.

C.

Assess the potential risk.

D.

Develop risk awareness training.

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Question # 165

Which of the following would BEST help minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats?

A.

Enforcing employees’ sanctions

B.

Conducting phishing exercises

C.

Enforcing segregation of dunes

D.

Reviewing the organization's risk appetite

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Question # 166

Which of the following techniques would be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated?

A.

Control chart

B.

Sensitivity analysis

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Decision tree

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Question # 167

The risk associated with an asset before controls are applied can be expressed as:

A.

a function of the likelihood and impact

B.

the magnitude of an impact

C.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of control.

D.

the likelihood of a given threat

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Question # 168

Which of the following is the MOST effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management?

A.

Percentage of changes with a fallback plan

B.

Number of changes implemented

C.

Percentage of successful changes

D.

Average time required to implement a change

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Question # 169

An organization has identified a risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system. The risk practitioner is documenting the risk in the risk register. The risk should be owned by the:

A.

chief risk officer.

B.

project manager.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

business process owner.

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Question # 170

It is MOST appropriate for changes to be promoted to production after they are:

A.

communicated to business management

B.

tested by business owners.

C.

approved by the business owner.

D.

initiated by business users.

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Question # 171

Which of the following would BEST provide early warning of a high-risk condition?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

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Question # 172

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective risk management program?

A.

Risk response plans are documented

B.

Controls are mapped to key risk scenarios.

C.

Key risk indicators are defined.

D.

Risk ownership is assigned

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Question # 173

Which of the following is the MOST important step to ensure regulatory requirements are adequately addressed within an organization?

A.

Obtain necessary resources to address regulatory requirements

B.

Develop a policy framework that addresses regulatory requirements

C.

Perform a gap analysis against regulatory requirements.

D.

Employ IT solutions that meet regulatory requirements.

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Question # 174

Which of the following is the BEST control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development?

A.

An established process for project change management

B.

Retention of test data and results for review purposes

C.

Business managements review of functional requirements

D.

Segregation between development, test, and production

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Question # 175

Which of the following issues found during the review of a newly created disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be of MOST concern?

A.

Some critical business applications are not included in the plan

B.

Several recovery activities will be outsourced

C.

The plan is not based on an internationally recognized framework

D.

The chief information security officer (CISO) has not approved the plan

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Question # 176

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

High percentage of lagging indicators

B.

Nonexistent benchmark analysis

C.

Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring

D.

Ineffective methods to assess risk

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Question # 177

A recent big data project has resulted in the creation of an application used to support important investment decisions. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

A.

Data quality

B.

Maintenance costs

C.

Data redundancy

D.

System integration

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Question # 178

Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive information when developing a risk profile for a system?

A.

Results of a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

A mapping of resources to business processes

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 179

Which of the following is MOST important for senior management to review during an acquisition?

A.

Risk appetite and tolerance

B.

Risk framework and methodology

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

D.

Risk communication plan

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Question # 180

Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing an overview of an organization's risk management program?

A.

Risk management treatment plan

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Risk management framework

D.

Risk register

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Question # 181

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to managing an organization's end-user devices?

A.

Incomplete end-user device inventory

B.

Unsupported end-user applications

C.

Incompatible end-user devices

D.

Multiple end-user device models

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Question # 182

A global company s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information….

event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?

A.

The difference In the management practices between each company

B.

The cloud computing environment is shared with another company

C.

The lack of a service level agreement (SLA) in the vendor contract

D.

The organizational culture differences between each country

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Question # 183

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the effectiveness of disaster recovery processes?

A.

Percentage of IT systems recovered within the mean time to restore (MTTR) during the disaster recovery test

B.

Percentage of issues arising from the disaster recovery test resolved on time

C.

Percentage of IT systems included in the disaster recovery test scope

D.

Percentage of IT systems meeting the recovery time objective (RTO) during the disaster recovery test

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Question # 184

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization

D.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

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Question # 185

When defining thresholds for control key performance indicators (KPIs). it is MOST helpful to align:

A.

information risk assessments with enterprise risk assessments.

B.

key risk indicators (KRIs) with risk appetite of the business.

C.

the control key performance indicators (KPIs) with audit findings.

D.

control performance with risk tolerance of business owners.

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Question # 186

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?

A.

IT goals and objectives

B.

Organizational goals and objectives

C.

The organization's risk appetite statement

D.

Legal and regulatory requirements

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Question # 187

A newly incorporated enterprise needs to secure its information assets From a governance perspective which of the following should be done FIRST?

A.

Define information retention requirements and policies

B.

Provide information security awareness training

C.

Establish security management processes and procedures

D.

Establish an inventory of information assets

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Question # 188

After the implementation of internal of Things (IoT) devices, new risk scenarios were identified. What is the PRIMARY reason to report this information to risk owners?

A.

To reevaluate continued use to IoT devices

B.

The add new controls to mitigate the risk

C.

The recommend changes to the IoT policy

D.

To confirm the impact to the risk profile

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Question # 189

Which of the following resources is MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when updating the likelihood rating in the risk register?

A.

Risk control assessment

B.

Audit reports with risk ratings

C.

Penetration test results

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 190

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of centralizing IT systems?

A.

Risk reporting

B.

Risk classification

C.

Risk monitoring

D.

Risk identification

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Question # 191

When developing a response plan to address security incidents regarding sensitive data loss, it is MOST important

A.

revalidate current key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

revise risk management procedures.

C.

review the data classification policy.

D.

revalidate existing risk scenarios.

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Question # 192

Which of the following is MOST important to update when an organization's risk appetite changes?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk reporting methodology

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Risk taxonomy

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Question # 193

Which of the following would BEST mitigate an identified risk scenario?

A.

Conducting awareness training

B.

Executing a risk response plan

C.

Establishing an organization's risk tolerance

D.

Performing periodic audits

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Question # 194

Which of the following situations presents the GREATEST challenge to creating a comprehensive IT risk profile of an organization?

A.

Manual vulnerability scanning processes

B.

Organizational reliance on third-party service providers

C.

Inaccurate documentation of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Risk-averse organizational risk appetite

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Question # 195

Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern for an IT risk practitioner when an employees.....

A.

The organization's structure has not been updated

B.

Unnecessary access permissions have not been removed.

C.

Company equipment has not been retained by IT

D.

Job knowledge was not transferred to employees m the former department

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Question # 196

An organization has asked an IT risk practitioner to conduct an operational risk assessment on an initiative to outsource the organization's customer service operations overseas. Which of the following would MOST significantly impact management's decision?

A.

Time zone difference of the outsourcing location

B.

Ongoing financial viability of the outsourcing company

C.

Cross-border information transfer restrictions in the outsourcing country

D.

Historical network latency between the organization and outsourcing location

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Question # 197

Which of the following is the BEST approach for selecting controls to minimize risk?

A.

Industry best practice review

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Control-effectiveness evaluation

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Question # 198

Senior management is deciding whether to share confidential data with the organization's business partners. The BEST course of action for a risk practitioner would be to submit a report to senior management containing the:

A.

possible risk and suggested mitigation plans.

B.

design of controls to encrypt the data to be shared.

C.

project plan for classification of the data.

D.

summary of data protection and privacy legislation.

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Question # 199

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Implementing technical control over the assets

C.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

D.

Scheduling periodic audits

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Question # 200

The following is the snapshot of a recently approved IT risk register maintained by an organization's information security department.

After implementing countermeasures listed in ‘’Risk Response Descriptions’’ for each of the Risk IDs, which of the following component of the register MUST change?

A.

Risk Impact Rating

B.

Risk Owner

C.

Risk Likelihood Rating

D.

Risk Exposure

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Question # 201

The objective of aligning mitigating controls to risk appetite is to ensure that:

A.

exposures are reduced to the fullest extent

B.

exposures are reduced only for critical business systems

C.

insurance costs are minimized

D.

the cost of controls does not exceed the expected loss.

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Question # 202

When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a core business process, which of the following should be done FIRST to ensure continuity of operations?

A.

Define metrics for restoring availability.

B.

Identify conditions that may cause disruptions.

C.

Review incident response procedures.

D.

Evaluate the probability of risk events.

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Question # 203

Which of the following is MOST helpful in defining an early-warning threshold associated with insufficient network bandwidth’’?

A.

Average bandwidth usage

B.

Peak bandwidth usage

C.

Total bandwidth usage

D.

Bandwidth used during business hours

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Question # 204

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of reporting risk assessment results to senior management?

A.

Promotion of a risk-aware culture

B.

Compilation of a comprehensive risk register

C.

Alignment of business activities

D.

Facilitation of risk-aware decision making

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Question # 205

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A.

Management approval

B.

Annual review

C.

Relevance

D.

Automation

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Question # 206

Which of the following contributes MOST to the effective implementation of risk responses?

A.

Clear understanding of the risk

B.

Comparable industry risk trends

C.

Appropriate resources

D.

Detailed standards and procedures

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Question # 207

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for.

A.

data logging and monitoring

B.

data mining and analytics

C.

data classification and labeling

D.

data retention and destruction

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Question # 208

Which of the following s MOST likely to deter an employee from engaging in inappropriate use of company owned IT systems?

A.

A centralized computer security response team

B.

Regular performance reviews and management check-ins

C.

Code of ethics training for all employees

D.

Communication of employee activity monitoring

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Question # 209

An organization's business gap analysis reveals the need for a robust IT risk strategy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY consideration when participating in development of the new strategy?

A.

Scale of technology

B.

Risk indicators

C.

Risk culture

D.

Proposed risk budget

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Question # 210

Which of the following is MOST important for successful incident response?

A.

The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools

B.

Blocking the attack route immediately

C.

The ability to trace the source of the attack

D.

The timeliness of attack recognition

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Question # 211

Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover a business continuity awareness Ira nine, program for all employees of the organization?

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

B.

Segregation of duties

C.

Communication plan

D.

Critical asset inventory

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Question # 212

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan''

A.

To ensure completion of the risk assessment cycle

B.

To ensure controls arc operating effectively

C.

To ensure residual risk Is at an acceptable level

D.

To ensure control costs do not exceed benefits

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Question # 213

Which of the following activities BEST facilitates effective risk management throughout the organization?

A.

Reviewing risk-related process documentation

B.

Conducting periodic risk assessments

C.

Performing a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Performing frequent audits

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Question # 214

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk priorities

D.

Risk heat maps

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Question # 215

Which of the following is MOST helpful to understand the consequences of an IT risk event?

A.

Fault tree analysis

B.

Historical trend analysis

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 216

An organization is concerned that its employees may be unintentionally disclosing data through the use of social media sites. Which of the following will MOST effectively mitigate tins risk?

A.

Requiring the use of virtual private networks (VPNs)

B.

Establishing a data classification policy

C.

Conducting user awareness training

D.

Requiring employee agreement of the acceptable use policy

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Question # 217

When a risk practitioner is determining a system's criticality. it is MOST helpful to review the associated:

A.

process flow.

B.

business impact analysis (BIA).

C.

service level agreement (SLA).

D.

system architecture.

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Question # 218

After entering a large number of low-risk scenarios into the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

A.

prepare a follow-up risk assessment.

B.

recommend acceptance of the risk scenarios.

C.

reconfirm risk tolerance levels.

D.

analyze changes to aggregate risk.

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Question # 219

Which risk response strategy could management apply to both positive and negative risk that has been identified?

A.

Transfer

B.

Accept

C.

Exploit

D.

Mitigate

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Question # 220

When preparing a risk status report for periodic review by senior management, it is MOST important to ensure the report includes

A.

risk exposure in business terms

B.

a detailed view of individual risk exposures

C.

a summary of incidents that have impacted the organization.

D.

recommendations by an independent risk assessor.

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Question # 221

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing an organization risk register after the completion of a series of risk assessments?

A.

Several risk action plans have missed target completion dates.

B.

Senior management has accepted more risk than usual.

C.

Risk associated with many assets is only expressed in qualitative terms.

D.

Many risk scenarios are owned by the same senior manager.

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Question # 222

It is MOST important that security controls for a new system be documented in:

A.

testing requirements

B.

the implementation plan.

C.

System requirements

D.

The security policy

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Question # 223

Who is BEST suited to provide objective input when updating residual risk to reflect the results of control effectiveness?

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Internal auditor

D.

Compliance manager

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Question # 224

When documenting a risk response, which of the following provides the STRONGEST evidence to support the decision?

A.

Verbal majority acceptance of risk by committee

B.

List of compensating controls

C.

IT audit follow-up responses

D.

A memo indicating risk acceptance

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Question # 225

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover?

A.

Well documented policies and procedures

B.

Risk and issue tracking

C.

An IT strategy committee

D.

Change and release management

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Question # 226

An organization's chief information officer (CIO) has proposed investing in a new. untested technology to take advantage of being first to market Senior management has concerns about the success of the project and has set a limit for expenditures before final approval. This conditional approval indicates the organization's risk:

A.

capacity.

B.

appetite.

C.

management capability.

D.

treatment strategy.

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Question # 227

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of establishing an organization's risk tolerance and appetite?

A.

To align with board reporting requirements

B.

To assist management in decision making

C.

To create organization-wide risk awareness

D.

To minimize risk mitigation efforts

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Question # 228

An organization has made a decision to purchase a new IT system. During when phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) will identified risk MOST likely lead to architecture and design trade-offs?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Implementation

C.

Initiation

D.

Operation and maintenance

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Question # 229

A control process has been implemented in response to a new regulatory requirement, but has significantly reduced productivity. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve this concern?

A.

Absorb the loss in productivity.

B.

Request a waiver to the requirements.

C.

Escalate the issue to senior management

D.

Remove the control to accommodate business objectives.

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Question # 230

Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation'?

A.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Source code review

D.

Vulnerability analysis

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Question # 231

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's risk appetite?

A.

Threats and vulnerabilities

B.

Internal and external risk factors

C.

Business objectives and strategies

D.

Management culture and behavior

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Question # 232

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review an organization's IT asset inventory?

A.

To plan for the replacement of assets at the end of their life cycles

B.

To assess requirements for reducing duplicate assets

C.

To understand vulnerabilities associated with the use of the assets

D.

To calculate mean time between failures (MTBF) for the assets

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Question # 233

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of executive management's support for IT risk mitigation efforts?

A.

The number of stakeholders involved in IT risk identification workshops

B.

The percentage of corporate budget allocated to IT risk activities

C.

The percentage of incidents presented to the board

D.

The number of executives attending IT security awareness training

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Question # 234

Which of the following is PRIMARILY a risk management responsibly of the first line of defense?

A.

Implementing risk treatment plans

B.

Validating the status of risk mitigation efforts

C.

Establishing risk policies and standards

D.

Conducting independent reviews of risk assessment results

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Question # 235

Which of the following BEST facilitates the identification of appropriate key performance indicators (KPIs) for a risk management program?

A.

Reviewing control objectives

B.

Aligning with industry best practices

C.

Consulting risk owners

D.

Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite

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Question # 236

When is the BEST to identify risk associated with major project to determine a mitigation plan?

A.

Project execution phase

B.

Project initiation phase

C.

Project closing phase

D.

Project planning phase

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Question # 237

A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?

A.

HR training director

B.

Business process owner

C.

HR recruitment manager

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 238

As pan of business continuity planning, which of the following is MOST important to include m a business impact analysis (BlA)?

A.

An assessment of threats to the organization

B.

An assessment of recovery scenarios

C.

industry standard framework

D.

Documentation of testing procedures

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Question # 239

An IT risk threat analysis is BEST used to establish

A.

risk scenarios

B.

risk maps

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk ownership.

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Question # 240

An organization has experienced several incidents of extended network outages that have exceeded tolerance. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST step to address this situation?

A.

Recommend additional controls to address the risk.

B.

Update the risk tolerance level to acceptable thresholds.

C.

Update the incident-related risk trend in the risk register.

D.

Recommend a root cause analysis of the incidents.

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Question # 241

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness?

A.

A risk and control self-assessment

B.

Senior management's attestation

C.

A system-generated testing report

D.

detailed process walk-through

Full Access
Question # 242

Which of the following would be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing risk action plans for documented IT risk scenarios?

A.

Individuals outside IT are managing action plans for the risk scenarios.

B.

Target dates for completion are missing from some action plans.

C.

Senior management approved multiple changes to several action plans.

D.

Many action plans were discontinued after senior management accepted the risk.

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Question # 243

Which of the following is MOST important to determine when assessing the potential risk exposure of a loss event involving personal data?

A.

The cost associated with incident response activities

The composition and number of records in the information asset

B.

The maximum levels of applicable regulatory fines

C.

The length of time between identification and containment of the incident

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Question # 244

An organization wants to grant remote access to a system containing sensitive data to an overseas third party. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to management?

A.

Transborder data transfer restrictions

B.

Differences in regional standards

C.

Lack of monitoring over vendor activities

D.

Lack of after-hours incident management support

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Question # 245

Which of the following would be the BEST way for a risk practitioner to validate the effectiveness of a patching program?

A.

Conduct penetration testing.

B.

Interview IT operations personnel.

C.

Conduct vulnerability scans.

D.

Review change control board documentation.

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Question # 246

An organization's recovery team is attempting to recover critical data backups following a major flood in its data center. However, key team members do not know exactly what steps should be taken to address this crisis. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this situation?

A.

Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Lack of well-documented business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Lack of annual updates to the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Significant changes in management personnel

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Question # 247

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?

A.

Cost and benefit

B.

Security and availability

C.

Maintainability and reliability

D.

Performance and productivity

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Question # 248

An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

A.

Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy

B.

Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies

D.

Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization

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Question # 249

Who is MOST appropriate to be assigned ownership of a control

A.

The individual responsible for control operation

B.

The individual informed of the control effectiveness

C.

The individual responsible for resting the control

D.

The individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness

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Question # 250

In order to determining a risk is under-controlled the risk practitioner will need to

A.

understand the risk tolerance

B.

monitor and evaluate IT performance

C.

identify risk management best practices

D.

determine the sufficiency of the IT risk budget

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Question # 251

A MAJOR advantage of using key risk indicators (KRis) is that (hey

A.

identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds

B.

assess risk scenarios that exceed defined thresholds

C.

identify scenarios that exceed defined risk appetite

D.

help with internal control assessments concerning risk appellate

Full Access
Question # 252

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for prioritizing risk responses?

A.

The impact of the risk

B.

The replacement cost of the business asset

C.

The cost of risk mitigation controls

D.

The classification of the business asset

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Question # 253

A zero-day vulnerability has been discovered in a globally used brand of hardware server that allows hackers to gain

access to affected IT systems. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this situation?

A.

Control effectiveness

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

Full Access
Question # 254

Which of the following is the MOST important concern when assigning multiple risk owners for an identified risk?

A.

Accountability may not be clearly defined.

B.

Risk ratings may be inconsistently applied.

C.

Different risk taxonomies may be used.

D.

Mitigation efforts may be duplicated.

Full Access
Question # 255

Which of the following should be used as the PRIMARY basis for evaluating the state of an organization's cloud computing environment against leading practices?

A.

The cloud environment's capability maturity model

B.

The cloud environment's risk register

C.

The cloud computing architecture

D.

The organization's strategic plans for cloud computing

Full Access
Question # 256

Which of the following is the MOST important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization?

A.

Prioritize risk response options

B.

Reduce likelihood.

C.

Address more than one risk response

D.

Reduce impact

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Question # 257

Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization's key IT applications in a cloud environment?

A.

Reviewing the results of independent audits

B.

Performing a site visit to the cloud provider's data center

C.

Performing a due diligence review

D.

Conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders

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Question # 258

Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing a high-level overview of current IT risk severity*?

A.

Risk mitigation plans

B.

heat map

C.

Risk appetite statement

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

Full Access
Question # 259

Which of the following practices BEST mitigates risk related to enterprise-wide ethical decision making in a multi-national organization?

A.

Customized regional training on local laws and regulations

B.

Policies requiring central reporting of potential procedure exceptions

C.

Ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture

D.

Zero-tolerance policies for risk taking by middle-level managers

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Question # 260

A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:

A.

updating the risk register

B.

documenting the risk scenarios.

C.

validating the risk scenarios

D.

identifying risk mitigation controls.

Full Access
Question # 261

For a large software development project, risk assessments are MOST effective when performed:

A.

before system development begins.

B.

at system development.

C.

at each stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

during the development of the business case.

Full Access
Question # 262

An organization is conducting a review of emerging risk. Which of the following is the BEST input for this exercise?

A.

Audit reports

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Financial forecasts

D.

Annual threat reports

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Question # 263

Which of the following is MOST appropriate to prevent unauthorized retrieval of confidential information stored in a business application system?

A.

Implement segregation of duties.

B.

Enforce an internal data access policy.

C.

Enforce the use of digital signatures.

D.

Apply single sign-on for access control.

Full Access
Question # 264

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action when an organization plans to adopt a cloud computing strategy?

A.

Request a budget for implementation

B.

Conduct a threat analysis.

C.

Create a cloud computing policy.

D.

Perform a controls assessment.

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Question # 265

A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. What is the NEXT course of action?

A.

Monitor processes to ensure recent updates are being followed.

B.

Communicate to those who test and promote changes.

C.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis to justify the cost of the control.

D.

Assess the maturity of the change management process.

Full Access
Question # 266

An organizations chief technology officer (CTO) has decided to accept the risk associated with the potential loss from a denial-of-service (DoS) attack. In this situation, the risk practitioner's BEST course of action is to:

A.

identify key risk indicators (KRls) for ongoing monitoring

B.

validate the CTO's decision with the business process owner

C.

update the risk register with the selected risk response

D.

recommend that the CTO revisit the risk acceptance decision.

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Question # 267

The BEST way to improve a risk register is to ensure the register:

A.

is updated based upon significant events.

B.

documents possible countermeasures.

C.

contains the risk assessment completion date.

D.

is regularly audited.

Full Access
Question # 268

Which of the following MUST be updated to maintain an IT risk register?

A.

Expected frequency and potential impact

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 269

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when communicating roles associated with the IT risk management process?

A.

Skills matrix

B.

Job descriptions

C.

RACI chart

D.

Organizational chart

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Question # 270

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to update following a change in legislation requiring notification to individuals impacted by data breaches?

A.

Insurance coverage

B.

Security awareness training

C.

Policies and standards

D.

Risk appetite and tolerance

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Question # 271

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes?

A.

Percentage of business users completing risk training

B.

Percentage of high-risk scenarios for which risk action plans have been developed

C.

Number of key risk indicators (KRIs) defined

D.

Time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise's response

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Question # 272

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner'$ BEST recommendation to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile?

A.

Manage cyber risk according to the organization's risk management framework.

B.

Define cyber roles and responsibilities across the organization

C.

Conduct cyber risk awareness training tailored specifically for senior management

D.

Implement a cyber risk program based on industry best practices

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Question # 273

To reduce costs, an organization is combining the second and third tines of defense in a new department that reports to a recently appointed C-level executive. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this situation?

A.

The risk governance approach of the second and third lines of defense may differ.

B.

The independence of the internal third line of defense may be compromised.

C.

Cost reductions may negatively impact the productivity of other departments.

D.

The new structure is not aligned to the organization's internal control framework.

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Question # 274

Which of the following risk management practices BEST facilitates the incorporation of IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls) are developed for key IT risk scenarios

B.

IT risk scenarios are assessed by the enterprise risk management team

C.

Risk appetites for IT risk scenarios are approved by key business stakeholders.

D.

IT risk scenarios are developed in the context of organizational objectives.

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Question # 275

Which of the following should be implemented to BEST mitigate the risk associated with infrastructure updates?

A.

Role-specific technical training

B.

Change management audit

C.

Change control process

D.

Risk assessment

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Question # 276

A peer review of a risk assessment finds that a relevant threat community was not included. Mitigation of the risk will require substantial changes to a software application. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Ask the business to make a budget request to remediate the problem.

B.

Build a business case to remediate the fix.

C.

Research the types of attacks the threat can present.

D.

Determine the impact of the missing threat.

Full Access
Question # 277

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Heat map

D.

Risk register

Full Access
Question # 278

Winch of the following is the BEST evidence of an effective risk treatment plan?

A.

The inherent risk is below the asset residual risk.

B.

Remediation cost is below the asset business value

C.

The risk tolerance threshold s above the asset residual

D.

Remediation is completed within the asset recovery time objective (RTO)

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Question # 279

Which of the following approaches would BEST help to identify relevant risk scenarios?

A.

Engage line management in risk assessment workshops.

B.

Escalate the situation to risk leadership.

C.

Engage internal audit for risk assessment workshops.

D.

Review system and process documentation.

Full Access
Question # 280

What are the MOST essential attributes of an effective Key control indicator (KCI)?

A.

Flexibility and adaptability

B.

Measurability and consistency

C.

Robustness and resilience

D.

Optimal cost and benefit

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Question # 281

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key risk indicator (KRI) for backup media that is recycled monthly?

A.

Time required for backup restoration testing

B.

Change in size of data backed up

C.

Successful completion of backup operations

D.

Percentage of failed restore tests

Full Access
Question # 282

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment?

A.

Tokenized personal data only in test environments

B.

Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode

C.

Anonymized personal data in non-production environments

D.

Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments

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Question # 283

When developing a new risk register, a risk practitioner should focus on which of the following risk management activities?

A.

Risk management strategy planning

B.

Risk monitoring and control

C.

Risk identification

D.

Risk response planning

Full Access
Question # 284

A service provider is managing a client’s servers. During an audit of the service, a noncompliant control is discovered that will not be resolved before the next audit because the client cannot afford the downtime required to correct the issue. The service provider’s MOST appropriate action would be to:

A.

develop a risk remediation plan overriding the client's decision

B.

make a note for this item in the next audit explaining the situation

C.

insist that the remediation occur for the benefit of other customers

D.

ask the client to document the formal risk acceptance for the provider

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Question # 285

The MAIN reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to:

A.

assess effectiveness of different projects.

B.

define the risk assessment methodology.

C.

ensure assets have low residual risk.

D.

account for identified key risk factors.

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Question # 286

In response to the threat of ransomware, an organization has implemented cybersecurity awareness activities. The risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to further reduce the impact of ransomware attacks would be to implement:

A.

two-factor authentication.

B.

continuous data backup controls.

C.

encryption for data at rest.

D.

encryption for data in motion.

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Question # 287

The PRIMARY benefit of using a maturity model is that it helps to evaluate the:

A.

capability to implement new processes

B.

evolution of process improvements

C.

degree of compliance with policies and procedures

D.

control requirements.

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Question # 288

When of the following provides the MOST tenable evidence that a business process control is effective?

A.

Demonstration that the control is operating as designed

B.

A successful walk-through of the associated risk assessment

C.

Management attestation that the control is operating effectively

D.

Automated data indicating that risk has been reduced

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Question # 289

Which of the following is the MOST common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider?

A.

Lack of technical expertise

B.

Combining incompatible duties

C.

Unauthorized data usage

D.

Denial of service attacks

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Question # 290

The PRIMARY objective of a risk identification process is to:

A.

evaluate how risk conditions are managed.

B.

determine threats and vulnerabilities.

C.

estimate anticipated financial impact of risk conditions.

D.

establish risk response options.

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Question # 291

An IT control gap has been identified in a key process. Who would be the MOST appropriate owner of the risk associated with this gap?

A.

Key control owner

B.

Operational risk manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

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Question # 292

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when ensuring that mitigated risk remains within acceptable limits?

A.

Building an organizational risk profile after updating the risk register

B.

Ensuring risk owners participate in a periodic control testing process

C.

Designing a process for risk owners to periodically review identified risk

D.

Implementing a process for ongoing monitoring of control effectiveness

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Question # 293

To minimize the risk of a potential acquisition being exposed externally, an organization has selected a few key employees to be engaged in the due diligence process. A member of the due diligence team realizes a close acquaintance is a high-ranking IT professional at a subsidiary of the company about to be acquired. What is the BEST course of action for this team member?

A.

Enforce segregation of duties.

B.

Disclose potential conflicts of interest.

C.

Delegate responsibilities involving the acquaintance.

D.

Notify the subsidiary's legal team.

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Question # 294

An IT department originally planned to outsource the hosting of its data center at an overseas location to reduce operational expenses. After a risk assessment, the department has decided to keep the data center in-house. How should the risk treatment response be reflected in the risk register?

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

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Question # 295

Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to enable risk treatment decisions?

A.

Allocate sufficient funds for risk remediation.

B.

Promote risk and security awareness.

C.

Establish clear accountability for risk.

D.

Develop comprehensive policies and standards.

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Question # 296

An IT risk practitioner has been asked to regularly report on the overall status and effectiveness of the IT risk management program. Which of the following is MOST useful for this purpose?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Capability maturity level

C.

Internal audit plan

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

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Question # 297

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of periodically reviewing an organization's risk profile?

A.

Align business objectives with risk appetite.

B.

Enable risk-based decision making.

C.

Design and implement risk response action plans.

D.

Update risk responses in the risk register

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Question # 298

When of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of en intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

A.

Percentage of system uptime

B.

Percentage of relevant threats mitigated

C.

Total number of threats identified

D.

Reaction time of the system to threats

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Question # 299

An organization's IT infrastructure is running end-of-life software that is not allowed without exception approval. Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful information to justify investing in updated software?

A.

The balanced scorecard

B.

A cost-benefit analysis

C.

The risk management framework

D, A roadmap of IT strategic planning

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Question # 300

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to integrate risk and compliance management?

A.

Embedding risk management into compliance decision-making

B.

Designing corrective actions to improve risk response capabilities

C.

Embedding risk management into processes that are aligned with business drivers

D.

Conducting regular self-assessments to verify compliance

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Question # 301

Which of the following BEST enforces access control for an organization that uses multiple cloud technologies?

A.

Senior management support of cloud adoption strategies

B.

Creation of a cloud access risk management policy

C.

Adoption of a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution

D.

Expansion of security information and event management (SIEM) to cloud services

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Question # 302

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the misclassification of data?

A.

inadequate resource allocation

B.

Data disruption

C.

Unauthorized access

D.

Inadequate retention schedules

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Question # 303

Which of the following approaches to bring your own device (BYOD) service delivery provides the BEST protection from data loss?

A.

Enable data wipe capabilities

B.

Penetration testing and session timeouts

C.

Implement remote monitoring

D.

Enforce strong passwords and data encryption

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Question # 304

An organization uses a vendor to destroy hard drives. Which of the following would BEST reduce the risk of data leakage?

A.

Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives

B.

Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives.

C.

Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager.

D.

Use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives.

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Question # 305

The PRIMARY benefit associated with key risk indicators (KRls) is that they:

A.

help an organization identify emerging threats.

B.

benchmark the organization's risk profile.

C.

identify trends in the organization's vulnerabilities.

D.

enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk.

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Question # 306

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk?

A.

Updating the risk register to include the risk mitigation plan

B.

Determining processes for monitoring the effectiveness of the controls

C.

Ensuring that control design reduces risk to an acceptable level

D.

Confirming to management the controls reduce the likelihood of the risk

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Question # 307

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to maintain the integrity of system configuration files?

A.

Recording changes to configuration files

B.

Implementing automated vulnerability scanning

C.

Restricting access to configuration documentation

D.

Monitoring against the configuration standard

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Question # 308

The PRIMARY goal of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) as part of an overall continuity planning process is to:

A.

obtain the support of executive management.

B.

map the business processes to supporting IT and other corporate resources.

C.

identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services.

D.

document the disaster recovery process.

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Question # 309

Which of the following is the MOST critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation?

A.

The organization's knowledge

B.

Ease of implementation

C.

The organization's culture

D.

industry-leading security tools

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Question # 310

While reviewing an organization's monthly change management metrics, a risk practitioner notes that the number of emergency changes has increased substantially Which of the following would be the BEST approach for the risk practitioner to take?

A.

Temporarily suspend emergency changes.

B.

Document the control deficiency in the risk register.

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Continue monitoring change management metrics.

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Question # 311

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of providing an aggregated view of IT risk to business management?

A.

To enable consistent data on risk to be obtained

B.

To allow for proper review of risk tolerance

C.

To identify dependencies for reporting risk

D.

To provide consistent and clear terminology

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Question # 312

Which of me following is MOST helpful to mitigate the risk associated with an application under development not meeting business objectives?

A.

Identifying tweets that may compromise enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Including diverse Business scenarios in user acceptance testing (UAT)

C.

Performing risk assessments during the business case development stage

D.

Including key stakeholders in review of user requirements

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Question # 313

What is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A.

To determine the likelihood and impact of threats to business operations

B.

To identify important business processes in the organization

C.

To estimate resource requirements for related business processes

D.

To evaluate the priority of business operations in case of disruption

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Question # 314

The BEST indication that risk management is effective is when risk has been reduced to meet:

A.

risk levels.

B.

risk budgets.

C.

risk appetite.

D.

risk capacity.

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Question # 315

An organization has detected unauthorized logins to its client database servers. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?

A.

Potential increase in regulatory scrutiny

B.

Potential system downtime

C.

Potential theft of personal information

D.

Potential legal risk

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Question # 316

Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk for a global organization when implementing a data classification policy?

A.

Data encryption has not been applied to all sensitive data across the organization.

B.

There are many data assets across the organization that need to be classified.

C.

Changes to information handling procedures are not documented.

D.

Changes to data sensitivity during the data life cycle have not been considered.

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Question # 317

Which of the following practices MOST effectively safeguards the processing of personal data?

A.

Personal data attributed to a specific data subject is tokenized.

B.

Data protection impact assessments are performed on a regular basis.

C.

Personal data certifications are performed to prevent excessive data collection.

D.

Data retention guidelines are documented, established, and enforced.

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Question # 318

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time?

A.

Ongoing availability of data

B.

Ability to aggregate data

C.

Ability to predict trends

D.

Availability of automated reporting systems

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Question # 319

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting?

A.

Organizational reporting process

B.

Incident reporting procedures

C.

Regularly scheduled audits

D.

Incident management policy

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Question # 320

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit when enterprise risk management (ERM) provides oversight of IT risk management?

A.

Aligning IT with short-term and long-term goals of the organization

B.

Ensuring the IT budget and resources focus on risk management

C.

Ensuring senior management's primary focus is on the impact of identified risk

D.

Prioritizing internal departments that provide service to customers

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Question # 321

Which of the following statements describes the relationship between key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIs)?

A.

KRI design must precede definition of KCIs.

B.

KCIs and KRIs are independent indicators and do not impact each other.

C.

A decreasing trend of KRI readings will lead to changes to KCIs.

D.

Both KRIs and KCIs provide insight to potential changes in the level of risk.

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Question # 322

Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to change control in business application development over the complete life cycle?

A.

Emphasis on multiple application testing cycles

B.

Lack of an integrated development environment (IDE) tool

C.

Introduction of requirements that have not been approved

D.

Bypassing quality requirements before go-live

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Question # 323

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to determine risk exposure following control implementations?

A.

Strategic plan and risk management integration

B.

Risk escalation and process for communication

C.

Risk limits, thresholds, and indicators

D.

Policies, standards, and procedures

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Question # 324

Which of the following methods is an example of risk mitigation?

A.

Not providing capability for employees to work remotely

B.

Outsourcing the IT activities and infrastructure

C.

Enforcing change and configuration management processes

D.

Taking out insurance coverage for IT-related incidents

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Question # 325

Which of the following BEST facilities the alignment of IT risk management with enterprise risk management (ERM)?

A.

Adopting qualitative enterprise risk assessment methods

B.

Linking IT risk scenarios to technology objectives

C.

linking IT risk scenarios to enterprise strategy

D.

Adopting quantitative enterprise risk assessment methods

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Question # 326

An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?

A.

The third party's IT operations manager

B.

The organization's process owner

C.

The third party's chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

The organization's risk practitioner

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Question # 327

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a mature organizational risk culture?

A.

Corporate risk appetite is communicated to staff members.

B.

Risk owners understand and accept accountability for risk.

C.

Risk policy has been published and acknowledged by employees.

D.

Management encourages the reporting of policy breaches.

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Question # 328

When evaluating enterprise IT risk management it is MOST important to:

A.

create new control processes to reduce identified IT risk scenarios

B.

confirm the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance

C.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management

D.

review alignment with the organization's investment plan

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Question # 329

Which of the following tasks should be completed prior to creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Identifying the recovery response team

C.

Procuring a recovery site

D.

Assigning sensitivity levels to data

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Question # 330

Which of the following criteria associated with key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST enables effective risk monitoring?

A.

Approval by senior management

B.

Low cost of development and maintenance

C.

Sensitivity to changes in risk levels

D.

Use of industry risk data sources

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Question # 331

Which element of an organization's risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

The owner of the financial reporting process

C.

The risk rating of affected financial processes

D.

The list of relevant financial controls

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Question # 332

Which of the following is the BEST control to detect an advanced persistent threat (APT)?

A.

Utilizing antivirus systems and firewalls

B.

Conducting regular penetration tests

C.

Monitoring social media activities

D.

Implementing automated log monitoring

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Question # 333

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to an information security management team when allocating resources to mitigate exposures?

A.

Relevant risk case studies

B.

Internal audit findings

C.

Risk assessment results

D.

Penetration testing results

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Question # 334

When a high-risk security breach occurs, which of the following would be MOST important to the person responsible for managing the incident?

A.

An analysis of the security logs that illustrate the sequence of events

B.

An analysis of the impact of similar attacks in other organizations

C.

A business case for implementing stronger logical access controls

D.

A justification of corrective action taken

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Question # 335

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of an access management process?

A.

Comparing the actual process with the documented process

B.

Reviewing access logs for user activity

C.

Reconciling a list of accounts belonging to terminated employees

D.

Reviewing for compliance with acceptable use policy

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Question # 336

Which of the following should be done FIRST when information is no longer required to support business objectives?

A.

Archive the information to a backup database.

B.

Protect the information according to the classification policy.

C.

Assess the information against the retention policy.

D.

Securely and permanently erase the information

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Question # 337

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation?

A.

Key audit findings

B.

Treatment plan status

C.

Performance indicators

D.

Risk scenario results

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Question # 338

The MOST important reason for implementing change control procedures is to ensure:

A.

only approved changes are implemented

B.

timely evaluation of change events

C.

an audit trail exists.

D.

that emergency changes are logged.

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Question # 339

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action when a tolerance threshold is exceeded?

A.

Communicate potential impact to decision makers.

B.

Research the root cause of similar incidents.

C.

Verify the response plan is adequate.

D.

Increase human resources to respond in the interim.

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Question # 340

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for senior management when developing a risk response strategy?

A.

Cost of controls

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Probability definition

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Question # 341

Which of the following would BEST mitigate the risk associated with reputational damage from inappropriate use of social media sites by employees?

A.

Validating employee social media accounts and passwords

B.

Monitoring Internet usage on employee workstations

C.

Disabling social media access from the organization's technology

D.

Implementing training and awareness programs

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Question # 342

While reviewing the risk register, a risk practitioner notices that different business units have significant variances in inherent risk for the same risk scenario. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Update the risk register with the average of residual risk for both business units.

B.

Review the assumptions of both risk scenarios to determine whether the variance is reasonable.

C.

Update the risk register to ensure both risk scenarios have the highest residual risk.

D.

Request that both business units conduct another review of the risk.

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Question # 343

Which of the following would BEST assist in reconstructing the sequence of events following a security incident across multiple IT systems in the organization's network?

A.

Network monitoring infrastructure

B.

Centralized vulnerability management

C.

Incident management process

D.

Centralized log management

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Question # 344

A PRIMARY advantage of involving business management in evaluating and managing risk is that management:

A.

better understands the system architecture.

B.

is more objective than risk management.

C.

can balance technical and business risk.

D.

can make better-informed business decisions.

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Question # 345

To mitigate the risk of using a spreadsheet to analyze financial data, IT has engaged a third-party vendor to deploy a standard application to automate the process. Which of the following parties should own the risk associated with calculation errors?

A.

business owner

B.

IT department

C.

Risk manager

D.

Third-party provider

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Question # 346

Which of the following provides The MOST useful information when determining a risk management program's maturity level?

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

A recently reviewed risk register

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

The organization's risk framework

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Question # 347

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to integrate business risk management with IT operations?

A.

Perform periodic IT control self-assessments.

B.

Require a risk assessment with change requests.

C.

Provide security awareness training.

D.

Perform periodic risk assessments.

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Question # 348

A risk practitioner is reporting on an increasing trend of ransomware attacks in the industry. Which of the following information is MOST important to include to enable an informed response decision by key stakeholders?

A.

Methods of attack progression

B.

Losses incurred by industry peers

C.

Most recent antivirus scan reports

D.

Potential impact of events

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Question # 349

Which of the following would MOST likely result in updates to an IT risk appetite statement?

A.

External audit findings

B.

Feedback from focus groups

C.

Self-assessment reports

D.

Changes in senior management

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Question # 350

Due to a change in business processes, an identified risk scenario no longer requires mitigation. Which of the following is the MOST important reason the risk should remain in the risk register?

A.

To support regulatory requirements

B.

To prevent the risk scenario in the current environment

C.

To monitor for potential changes to the risk scenario

D.

To track historical risk assessment results

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Question # 351

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results?

A.

To communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management

B.

To provide a comprehensive inventory of risk across the organization

C.

To assign a risk owner to manage the risk

D.

To enable the creation of action plans to address nsk

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Question # 352

Which of the following will provide the BEST measure of compliance with IT policies?

A.

Evaluate past policy review reports.

B.

Conduct regular independent reviews.

C.

Perform penetration testing.

D.

Test staff on their compliance responsibilities.

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Question # 353

An organization has engaged a third party to provide an Internet gateway encryption service that protects sensitive data uploaded to a cloud service. This is an example of risk:

A.

mitigation.

B.

avoidance.

C.

transfer.

D.

acceptance.

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Question # 354

Which of the following is the BEST way to promote adherence to the risk tolerance level set by management?

A.

Defining expectations in the enterprise risk policy

B.

Increasing organizational resources to mitigate risks

C.

Communicating external audit results

D.

Avoiding risks that could materialize into substantial losses

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Question # 355

The PRIMARY purpose of a maturity model is to compare the:

A.

current state of key processes to their desired state.

B.

actual KPIs with target KPIs.

C.

organization to industry best practices.

D.

organization to peers.

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Question # 356

An organization is measuring the effectiveness of its change management program to reduce the number of unplanned production changes. Which of the following would be the BEST metric to determine if the program is performing as expected?

A.

Decrease in the time to move changes to production

B.

Ratio of emergency fixes to total changes

C.

Ratio of system changes to total changes

D.

Decrease in number of changes without a fallback plan

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Question # 357

Which of the following is performed after a risk assessment is completed?

A.

Defining risk taxonomy

B.

Identifying vulnerabilities

C.

Conducting an impact analysis

D.

Defining risk response options

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Question # 358

Controls should be defined during the design phase of system development because:

A.

it is more cost-effective to determine controls in the early design phase.

B.

structured analysis techniques exclude identification of controls.

C.

structured programming techniques require that controls be designed before coding begins.

D.

technical specifications are defined during this phase.

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Question # 359

Once a risk owner has decided to implement a control to mitigate risk, it is MOST important to develop:

A.

a process for measuring and reporting control performance.

B.

an alternate control design in case of failure of the identified control.

C.

a process for bypassing control procedures in case of exceptions.

D.

procedures to ensure the effectiveness of the control.

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Question # 360

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?

A.

Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls

B.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system

C.

Frequency of business impact

D.

Cost of the Information control system

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Question # 361

When testing the security of an IT system, il is MOST important to ensure that;

A.

tests are conducted after business hours.

B.

operators are unaware of the test.

C.

external experts execute the test.

D.

agreement is obtained from stakeholders.

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Question # 362

A third-party vendor has offered to perform user access provisioning and termination. Which of the following control accountabilities is BEST retained within the organization?

A.

Reviewing access control lists

B.

Authorizing user access requests

C.

Performing user access recertification

D.

Terminating inactive user access

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Question # 363

During a control review, the control owner states that an existing control has deteriorated over time. What is the BEST recommendation to the control owner?

A.

Implement compensating controls to reduce residual risk

B.

Escalate the issue to senior management

C.

Discuss risk mitigation options with the risk owner.

D.

Certify the control after documenting the concern.

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Question # 364

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for conducting peer reviews of risk analysis?

A.

To enhance compliance with standards

B.

To minimize subjectivity of assessments

C.

To increase consensus among peers

D.

To provide assessments for benchmarking

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Question # 365

Which of the following provides The BEST information when determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical system to be implemented?

A.

Single loss expectancy (SLE)

B.

Cost of the information system

C.

Availability of additional compensating controls

D.

Potential business impacts are within acceptable levels

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Question # 366

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Business requirements

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Question # 367

The PRIMARY purpose of vulnerability assessments is to:

A.

provide clear evidence that the system is sufficiently secure.

B.

determine the impact of potential threats.

C.

test intrusion detection systems (IDS) and response procedures.

D.

detect weaknesses that could lead to system compromise.

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Question # 368

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when using a generic set of IT risk scenarios for risk analysis?

A.

Quantitative analysis might not be possible.

B.

Risk factors might not be relevant to the organization

C.

Implementation costs might increase.

D.

Inherent risk might not be considered.

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Question # 369

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when vulnerability assessment results identify a weakness in an application?

A.

Review regular control testing results.

B.

Recommend a penetration test.

C.

Assess the risk to determine mitigation needed.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 370

A risk practitioner has been notified that an employee sent an email in error containing customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Report it to the chief risk officer.

B.

Advise the employee to forward the email to the phishing team.

C.

follow incident reporting procedures.

D.

Advise the employee to permanently delete the email.

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Question # 371

A recent internal risk review reveals the majority of core IT application recovery time objectives (RTOs) have exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result?

A.

Risk forecasting

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 372

Which of the following is MOST important to the effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIS)?

A.

Updating the threat inventory with new threats

B.

Automating log data analysis

C.

Preventing the generation of false alerts

D.

Determining threshold levels

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Question # 373

Which of the following resources is MOST helpful when creating a manageable set of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Results of current and past risk assessments

B.

Organizational strategy and objectives

C.

Lessons learned from materialized risk scenarios

D.

Internal and external audit findings

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Question # 374

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST upon learning a risk treatment owner has implemented a different control than what was specified in the IT risk action plan?

A.

Seek approval from the control owner.

B.

Update the action plan in the risk register.

C.

Reassess the risk level associated with the new control.

D.

Validate that the control has an established testing method.

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Question # 375

Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for updating an organization's risk register?

A.

Results of the latest risk assessment

B.

Results of a risk forecasting analysis

C.

A review of compliance regulations

D.

Findings of the most recent audit

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Question # 376

Which of the following is MOST helpful to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk?

A.

An internal audit

B.

A heat map

C.

A business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

A vulnerability report

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Question # 377

A risk practitioner notices a trend of noncompliance with an IT-related control. Which of the following would BEST assist in making a recommendation to management?

A.

Assessing the degree to which the control hinders business objectives

B.

Reviewing the IT policy with the risk owner

C.

Reviewing the roles and responsibilities of control process owners

D.

Assessing noncompliance with control best practices

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Question # 378

Deviation from a mitigation action plan's completion date should be determined by which of the following?

A.

Change management as determined by a change control board

B.

Benchmarking analysis with similar completed projects

C.

Project governance criteria as determined by the project office

D.

The risk owner as determined by risk management processes

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Question # 379

An organization with a large number of applications wants to establish a security risk assessment program. Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when determining the frequency of risk assessments?

A.

Feedback from end users

B.

Results of a benchmark analysis

C.

Recommendations from internal audit

D.

Prioritization from business owners

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Question # 380

Which of the following risk scenarios would be the GREATEST concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation?

A.

User access may be restricted by additional security.

B.

Unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems.

C.

Security administration may become more complex.

D.

User privilege changes may not be recorded.

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Question # 381

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that a control under internal review may no longer be necessary?

A.

Obtain approval to retire the control.

B.

Update the status of the control as obsolete.

C.

Consult the internal auditor for a second opinion.

D.

Verify the effectiveness of the original mitigation plan.

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Question # 382

The maturity of an IT risk management program is MOST influenced by:

A.

the organization's risk culture

B.

benchmarking results against similar organizations

C.

industry-specific regulatory requirements

D.

expertise available within the IT department

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Question # 383

After migrating a key financial system to a new provider, it was discovered that a developer could gain access to the production environment. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk in this situation?

A.

Escalate the issue to the service provider.

B.

Re-certify the application access controls.

C.

Remove the developer's access.

D.

Review the results of pre-migration testing.

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Question # 384

Which of the following IT key risk indicators (KRIs) provides management with the BEST feedback on IT capacity?

A.

Trends in IT resource usage

B.

Trends in IT maintenance costs

C.

Increased resource availability

D.

Increased number of incidents

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Question # 385

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control action plan's implementation?

A.

Increased number of controls

B.

Reduced risk level

C.

Increased risk appetite

D.

Stakeholder commitment

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Question # 386

An organization's risk practitioner learns a new third-party system on the corporate network has introduced vulnerabilities that could compromise corporate IT systems. What should the risk practitioner do

FIRST?

A.

Confirm the vulnerabilities with the third party

B.

Identify procedures to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

C.

Notify information security management.

D.

Request IT to remove the system from the network.

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Question # 387

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an independent review of a risk management process?

A.

Accuracy of risk tolerance levels

B.

Consistency of risk process results

C.

Participation of stakeholders

D.

Maturity of the process

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Question # 388

An organization's risk tolerance should be defined and approved by which of the following?

A.

The chief risk officer (CRO)

B.

The board of directors

C.

The chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

The chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 389

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to ensure the risk register is updated regularly?

A.

Risk assessment results are accessible to senior management and stakeholders.

B.

Risk mitigation activities are managed and coordinated.

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are evaluated to validate they are still within the risk threshold.

D.

Risk information is available to enable risk-based decisions.

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Question # 390

To minimize risk in a software development project, when is the BEST time to conduct a risk analysis?

A.

During the business requirement definitions phase

B.

Before periodic steering committee meetings

C.

At each stage of the development life cycle

D.

During the business case development

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Question # 391

Which of the following is the BEST approach for determining whether a risk action plan is effective?

A.

Comparing the remediation cost against budget

B.

Assessing changes in residual risk

C.

Assessing the inherent risk

D.

Monitoring changes of key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 392

Performing a background check on a new employee candidate before hiring is an example of what type of control?

A.

Detective

B.

Compensating

C.

Corrective

D.

Preventive

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Question # 393

When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?

A.

List of recent incidents affecting industry peers

B.

Results of external attacks and related compensating controls

C.

Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment

D.

Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry

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Question # 394

Which of the following would be a weakness in procedures for controlling the migration of changes to production libraries?

A.

The programming project leader solely reviews test results before approving the transfer to production.

B.

Test and production programs are in distinct libraries.

C.

Only operations personnel are authorized to access production libraries.

D.

A synchronized migration of executable and source code from the test environment to the production environment is allowed.

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Question # 395

An organization is planning to outsource its payroll function to an external service provider Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when selecting the provider?

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP) of the system

B.

Right to audit the provider

C.

Internal controls to ensure data privacy

D.

Transparency of key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 396

The MAIN purpose of having a documented risk profile is to:

A.

comply with external and internal requirements.

B.

enable well-informed decision making.

C.

prioritize investment projects.

D.

keep the risk register up-to-date.

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Question # 397

Which of the following BEST promotes commitment to controls?

A.

Assigning control ownership

B.

Assigning appropriate resources

C.

Assigning a quality control review

D.

Performing regular independent control reviews

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Question # 398

Within the three lines of defense model, the accountability for the system of internal control resides with:

A.

the chief information officer (CIO).

B.

the board of directors

C.

enterprise risk management

D.

the risk practitioner

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Question # 399

Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?

Vulnerability analysis

A.

Control analysis

B.

Scenario analysis

C.

Heat map analysis

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Question # 400

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when evaluating plans for changes to IT services?

A.

Change testing schedule

B.

Impact assessment of the change

C.

Change communication plan

D.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

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Question # 401

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?

A.

Time between control failure and failure detection

B.

Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count

C.

Time spent on internal control assessment reviews

D.

Number of internal control failures within the measurement period

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Question # 402

The risk associated with inadvertent disclosure of database records from a public cloud service provider (CSP) would MOST effectively be reduced by:

A.

encrypting the data

B.

including a nondisclosure clause in the CSP contract

C.

assessing the data classification scheme

D.

reviewing CSP access privileges

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Question # 403

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge when assigning accountability for control ownership?

A.

Weak governance structures

B.

Senior management scrutiny

C.

Complex regulatory environment

D.

Unclear reporting relationships

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Question # 404

Which of the following conditions presents the GREATEST risk to an application?

A.

Application controls are manual.

B.

Application development is outsourced.

C.

Source code is escrowed.

D.

Developers have access to production environment.

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Question # 405

To help ensure all applicable risk scenarios are incorporated into the risk register, it is MOST important to review the:

A.

risk mitigation approach

B.

cost-benefit analysis.

C.

risk assessment results.

D.

vulnerability assessment results

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Question # 406

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of embedding risk management practices into the initiation phase of the project management life cycle?

A.

To deliver projects on time and on budget

B.

To assess inherent risk

C.

To include project risk in the enterprise-wide IT risk profit.

D.

To assess risk throughout the project

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Question # 407

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting either a qualitative or quantitative risk analysis?

A.

Expertise in both methodologies

B.

Maturity of the risk management program

C.

Time available for risk analysis

D.

Resources available for data analysis

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Question # 408

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to establish the root cause of an IT security incident?

A.

Prepare a report for senior management.

B.

Assign responsibility and accountability for the incident.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Avoid recurrence of the incident.

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Question # 409

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

KRI thresholds

B.

Integrity of the source data

C.

Control environment

D.

Stakeholder requirements

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Question # 410

During the initial risk identification process for a business application, it is MOST important to include which of the following stakeholders?

A.

Business process owners

B.

Business process consumers

C.

Application architecture team

D.

Internal audit

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Question # 411

Which of the following is a KEY responsibility of the second line of defense?

A.

Implementing control activities

B.

Monitoring control effectiveness

C.

Conducting control self-assessments

D.

Owning risk scenarios

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Question # 412

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization that wants to reduce IT operational risk?

A.

Increasing senior management's understanding of IT operations

B.

Increasing the frequency of data backups

C.

Minimizing complexity of IT infrastructure

D.

Decentralizing IT infrastructure

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Question # 413

The purpose of requiring source code escrow in a contractual agreement is to:

A.

ensure that the source code is valid and exists.

B.

ensure that the source code is available if the vendor ceases to exist.

C.

review the source code for adequacy of controls.

D.

ensure the source code is available when bugs occur.

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Question # 414

An organization plans to migrate sensitive information to a public cloud infrastructure. Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk in this scenario?

A.

Data may be commingled with other tenants' data.

B.

System downtime does not meet the organization's thresholds.

C.

The infrastructure will be managed by the public cloud administrator.

D.

The cloud provider is not independently certified.

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Question # 415

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level?

A.

Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets

B.

Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments

C.

A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents

D.

A large number of control exceptions

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Question # 416

Which of the following will BEST ensure that information security risk factors are mitigated when developing in-house applications?

A.

Identify information security controls in the requirements analysis

B.

Identify key risk indicators (KRIs) as process output.

C.

Design key performance indicators (KPIs) for security in system specifications.

D.

Include information security control specifications in business cases.

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Question # 417

A software developer has administrative access to a production application. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

The administrative access does not allow for activity log monitoring.

B.

The administrative access does not follow password management protocols.

C.

The administrative access represents a deviation from corporate policy.

D.

The administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict.

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Question # 418

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine software license compliance?

A.

List non-compliant systems in the risk register.

B.

Conduct periodic compliance reviews.

C.

Review whistleblower reports of noncompliance.

D.

Monitor user software download activity.

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Question # 419

Which of the following BEST contributes to the implementation of an effective risk response action plan?

A.

An IT tactical plan

B.

Disaster recovery and continuity testing

C.

Assigned roles and responsibilities

D.

A business impact analysis

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Question # 420

An upward trend in which of the following metrics should be of MOST concern?

A.

Number of business change management requests

B.

Number of revisions to security policy

C.

Number of security policy exceptions approved

D.

Number of changes to firewall rules

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Question # 421

Which of the following will BEST help an organization evaluate the control environment of several third-party vendors?

A.

Review vendors' internal risk assessments covering key risk and controls.

B.

Obtain independent control reports from high-risk vendors.

C.

Review vendors performance metrics on quality and delivery of processes.

D.

Obtain vendor references from third parties.

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Question # 422

Which of the following will BEST help ensure that risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed?

A.

Informing business process owners of the risk

B.

Reviewing and updating the risk register

C.

Assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals

D.

Implementing new control technologies

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Question # 423

Quantifying the value of a single asset helps the organization to understand the:

A.

overall effectiveness of risk management

B.

consequences of risk materializing

C.

necessity of developing a risk strategy,

D.

organization s risk threshold.

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Question # 424

Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern related to data privacy when implementing an Internet of Things (loT) solution that collects personally identifiable information (Pll)?

A.

A privacy impact assessment has not been completed.

B.

Data encryption methods apply to a subset of Pll obtained.

C.

The data privacy officer was not consulted.

D.

Insufficient access controls are used on the loT devices.

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Question # 425

Which of the following should an organization perform to forecast the effects of a disaster?

A.

Develop a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Define recovery time objectives (RTO).

C.

Analyze capability maturity model gaps.

D.

Simulate a disaster recovery.

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Question # 426

The GREATEST concern when maintaining a risk register is that:

A.

impacts are recorded in qualitative terms.

B.

executive management does not perform periodic reviews.

C.

IT risk is not linked with IT assets.

D.

significant changes in risk factors are excluded.

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Question # 427

An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?

A.

Acceptance

B.

Transfer

C.

Mitigation

D.

Avoidance

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Question # 428

Risk aggregation in a complex organization will be MOST successful when:

A.

using the same scales in assessing risk

B.

utilizing industry benchmarks

C.

using reliable qualitative data for risk Hems

D.

including primarily low-level risk factors

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