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156-915.80 Exam Dumps - Check Point Certified Security Expert Update - R80.10

Question # 4

When migrating the SmartEvent data base from one server to another, the last step is to save the files on the new server. Which of thefollowing commands should you run to save the SmartEvent data base files on the new server?

A.

cp

B.

restore

C.

migrate import

D.

eva_db_restore

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Question # 5

Fill in the blank.

In New Mode HA, the internal cluster IP VIP address is 10.4.8.3. An internal host 10.4.8.108 successfully pings itsCluster and receives replies. Review the ARP table from the internal Windows host 10.4.8.108. Based on this information, what is the active cluster member’s IP address?

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Question # 6

Which three of the following are ClusterXL member requirements?

1) same operating systems

2) same Check Point version

3) same appliance model

4) same policy

A.

1, 3, and 4

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

2, 3, and 4

D.

1, 2, and 3

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Question # 7

Fill in the blank. To verify the SecureXL status, you would enter command _____________ .

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Question # 8

In a zero downtime firewall cluster environment, what command syntax do you run to avoid switching problems around the cluster for command cphaconf?

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Question # 9

Which two processes are responsible on handling Identity Awareness?

A.

pdp and lad

B.

pdp and pdp-11

C.

pep and lad

D.

pdp and pep

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Question # 10

Which Check Point tool allows you to open a debug file and see the VPN packet exchange details.

A.

PacketDebug.exe

B.

VPNDebugger.exe

C.

IkeView.exe

D.

IPSECDebug.exe

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Question # 11

If your firewall is performing a lot of IPS inspection and the CPUs assigned tofw_worker_thread are at or near 100%, which of the following could you do to improve performance?

A.

Add more RAM to the system.

B.

Add more Disk Drives.

C.

Assign more CPU cores to CoreXL

D.

Assign more CPU cores to SecureXL.

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Question # 12

What is the command to check the status ofthe SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

A.

fw ctl get int cpsead_stat

B.

cpstat cpsead

C.

fw ctl stat cpsemd

D.

cp_conf get_stat cpsemd

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Question # 13

To bind a NIC to a single processor when using CoreXL on GAiA, you would use the command

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Question # 14

Fill in the blank. To enter the router shell, use command __________ .

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Question # 15

How do you configure the Security Policy to provide user access to the Captive Portal through an external (Internet) interface?

A.

Change thegateway settings to allow Captive Portal access via an external interface.

B.

No action is necessary. This access is available by default.

C.

Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Portal access on all interfaces.

D.

Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Portal access for an external interface.

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Question # 16

Fill in the blank. What is the correct command and syntax used to view a connection table summary on a Check Point Firewall?

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Question # 17

MegaCorp is using SmartCenter Server with several gateways. Their requirements result in a heavy log load. Would it be feasible to add the SmartEvent Correlation Unit and SmartEvent Server to their SmartCenter Server?

A.

No. SmartCenter SIC will interfere with the function of SmartEvent.

B.

No. If SmartCenter is already under stress,the use of a separate server for SmartEvent is recommended.

C.

No, SmartEvent and Smartcenter cannot be installed on the same machine at the same time.

D.

Yes. SmartEvent must be installed on your SmartCenter Server.

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Question # 18

Which CLI tool helps on verifying proper ClusterXL sync?

A.

fw stat

B.

fw ctl sync

C.

fw ctl pstat

D.

cphaprob stat

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Question # 19

Match the VPN-related terms with their definitions. Each correct term is only used once.

Exhibit:

A.

A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5

B.

A-4, B-3, C-5, D-2

C.

A-2, B-5, C-4, D-1

D.

A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

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Question # 20

What mechanism does a gateway configured with Identity Awareness and LDAP initially use to communicate with aWindows 2003 or 2008 server?

A.

WMI

B.

CIFS

C.

RCP

D.

LDAP

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Question # 21

Type the command and syntax that you would use to view thevirtual cluster interfaces of a ClusterXL environment.

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Question # 22

What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions included with SmartEvent R80?

A.

To allow SmartEvent R80 to function properly with all other R71 devices.

B.

To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition; a scenario that may occur in deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R71.

C.

As a base for starting and building exclusions.

D.

To give samples of how to write your own exclusion.

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Question # 23

What givesadministrators more flexibility when configuring Captive Portal instead of LDAP query for Identity Awareness authentication?

A.

Captive Portal is more secure than standard LDAP

B.

Nothing, LDAP query is required when configuring Captive Portal

C.

Captive Portal works with both configured users and guests

D.

Captive Portal is more transparent to the user

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Question # 24

How many pre-defined exclusions are included by default in SmartEvent R80 as part of the product installation?

A.

5

B.

0

C.

10

D.

3

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Question # 25

Which of the following is the preferred method for adding static routes in GAiA?

A.

In the CLI with the command “route add”

B.

In Web Portal, under Network Management > IPv4 Static Routes

C.

In the CLI via sysconfig

D.

In SmartDashboard under Gateway Properties > Topology

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Question # 26

MultiCorp is located in Atlanta. It has a branch office in Europe, Asia, and Africa. Each location has its own AD controller for local user login. How many ADqueries have to be configured?

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Question # 27

Type the full fw command and syntax that allows you to disable only sync on a cluster firewall member.

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Question # 28

When do modifications to the Event Policy take effect?

A.

As soon as the Policy Tab window is closed.

B.

When saved on the SmartEvent Server and installed to the Correlation Units.

C.

When saved on the Correlation Units, and pushed as a policy.

D.

When saved on the SmartEvent Client, and installed on the SmartEvent Server.

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Question # 29

Can you implement a complete IPv6 deployment without IPv4 addresses?

A.

No. SmartCenter cannot be accessed from everywhere on the Internet.

B.

Yes. Only one TCP stack (IPv6 or IPv4) can be used at the same time.

C.

Yes, There is no requirement for managing IPv4 addresses.

D.

No. IPv4 addresses are required for management.

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Question # 30

You find that Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you havecreated an HTTP rule via User Authentication. Choose the BEST reason why.

A.

You checked the cache password on desktop option in Global Properties.

B.

Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.

C.

You have forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.

D.

Users must use the SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.

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Question # 31

You are running a R80 Security Gateway on GAiA. In case of a hardware failure, you have a server with the exact same hardware and firewall version installed. What back up method could be used to quickly put the secondary firewall into production?

A.

manual backup

B.

upgrade_export

C.

backup

D.

snapshot

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Question # 32

Which of the following tools is used to generate a Security Gateway R80 configuration report?

A.

fw cpinfo

B.

infoCP

C.

cpinfo

D.

infoview

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Question # 33

You want to generate a cpinfo file via CLI on a system running GAiA. This will take about 40 minutes since the log files are also needed. What action do you need to take regarding timeout?

A.

No action is needed because cpshell has a timeout of one hour by default.

B.

Log in as the default user expert and start cpinfo.

C.

Log in as admin, switch to expert mode, set the timeout to one hour with the command, idle 60, then start cpinfo.

D.

Log in as Administrator, set the timeout to one hour with the command idle 60 and start cpinfo.

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Question # 34

Because of pre-existing design constraints, you set up manual NAT rules for your HTTP server. However, your FTP server and SMTP server are both using automatic NAT rules. All traffic from your FTP and SMTP servers are passing through the Security Gateway without a problem, but traffic from the Web server is dropped on rule 0 because of anti-spoofing settings. What is causing this?

A.

Manual NAT rules are notconfigured correctly.

B.

Allow bi-directional NAT is not checked in Global Properties.

C.

Routing is not configured correctly.

D.

Translate destination on client side is not checked in Global Properties under Manual NAT Rules.

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Question # 35

What happens if the identity of a user is known?

A.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped.

B.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox.

C.

If the user credentialsdo not match an Access Role, the gateway moves onto the next rule.

D.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal.

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Question # 36

Your company is running Security Management Server R80 on GAiA, which has been migrated through each version starting from CheckPoint 4.1. How do you add a new administrator account?

A.

Using SmartDashboard, under Users, select Add New Administrator

B.

Using SmartDashboard or cpconfig

C.

Using the Web console on GAiA under Product configuration, select Administrators

D.

Using cpconfig on the Security Management Server, choose Administrators

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Question # 37

You are a Security Administrator who has installed Security Gateway R80 on your network. You need to allow a specific IP address range for a partner site to access your intranet Web server. To limit the partner’s access for HTTP and FTP only, you did the following:

1)Created manual Static NAT rules for the Web server.

2) Cleared the following settings in the Global Properties > Network Address Translation screen:

- Allow bi-directional NAT

- Translate destination on client side

Do the above settings limit the partner’s access?

A.

Yes. This will ensure that traffic only matches the specific rule configured for this traffic, and that the Gateway translates the traffic after accepting the packet.

B.

No. The first setting is not applicable. The second setting will reduce performance.

C.

Yes. Both of these settings are only applicable to automatic NAT rules.

D.

No. The first setting is only applicable to automatic NAT rules. The second setting will force translation by the kernel on the interface nearest to the client.

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Question # 38

Study the Rule base and Client Authentication Action properties screen -

After being authenticated by the Security Gateway, when a user starts an HTTP connection to a Web site, the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line. What happens to the user? The:

A.

user is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway again.

B.

FTP data connection is dropped after the user is authenticated successfully.

C.

user is prompted to authenticate from that FTP site only, and does notneed to enter his username and password for Client Authentication.

D.

FTP connection is dropped by Rule 2.

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Question # 39

You are MegaCorp’s Security Administrator. There are various network objects which must be NATed. Some ofthem use the Automatic Hide NAT method, while others use the Automatic Static NAT method. What is the rule order if both methods are used together? Give the BEST answer.

A.

The Administrator decides the rule order by shifting the corresponding rules up and down.

B.

The Static NAT rules have priority over the Hide NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range.

C.

The Hide NAT rules have priority over the Static NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priorityover the NAT on a network or an address range.

D.

The rule position depends on the time of their creation. The rules created first are placed at the top; rules created later are placed successively below the others.

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Question # 40

How can you check whether IP forwarding is enabled on an IP Security Appliance?

A.

clish-c show routing active enable

B.

cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward

C.

echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward

D.

ipsofwd list

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Question # 41

John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimize malware infection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned an IP address 10.0.0.19 via DHCP.

John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop. He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server.

To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:

1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs the policy.

2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location.

Johnplugged in his laptop to the network on a different network segment and he is not able to connect. How does he solve this problem?

A.

John should install the Identity Awareness Agent

B.

The firewall admin should install the Security Policy

C.

John shouldlock and unlock the computer

D.

Investigate this as a network connectivity issue

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Question # 42

When simulating a problem on CLusterXL cluster with cphaprob –d STOP –s problem –t 0 register, to initiate a failover on an active cluster member, what command allows you remove the problematic state?

A.

cphaprob –d STOP unregister

B.

cphaprob STOP unregister

C.

cphaprob unregister STOP

D.

cphaprob –d unregister STOP

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Question # 43

To findrecords in the logs that shows log records from the Application & URL Filtering Software Blade where traffic was blocked, what would be the query syntax?

A.

blade: application control AND action:block

B.

blade; “application control” AND action;block

C.

(blade: application control AND action;block)

D.

blade: “application control” AND action:block

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Question # 44

Fill in the blank: The tool___________ generates a R80 Security Gateway configuration report.

A.

infoCP

B.

infoview

C.

cpinfo

D.

fw cpinfo

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Question # 45

Which command will allow you to see the interface status?

A.

cphaprob interface

B.

cphaprob –l interface

C.

cphaprob –a if

D.

cphaprob stat

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Question # 46

Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.

A.

R80 Management API-

B.

Identify Awareness Web Services API

C.

Open REST API

D.

OPSEC SDK

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Question # 47

How many images are included with Check Point TE appliance in Recommended Mode?

A.

2 (OS) images

B.

Images are chosen by administrator during installation

C.

as many as licensed for

D.

the most new image

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Question # 48

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for marking changes?

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active SmartConsole

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

Primary Log Server

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Question # 49

There are 4 ways to use the Management API for creating host object with R80 Management API. Which one is NOT correct?

A.

Using Web Services

B.

Using Mgmt_cli tool

C.

Using CLISH

D.

Using SmartConsole GUI console

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Question # 50

When configuring SmartEvent Initial settings, you must specify a basic topology for SmartEvent to help it calculate traffic direction for events. What is this setting called, and what are you defining?

A.

Network; and defining your Class A space

B.

Topology; and you are defining the Internal network

C.

Internal addresses; you are defining the gateways

D.

Internal network(s); you are defining your networks

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Question # 51

What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

A.

Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware

B.

Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers

C.

Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection

D.

Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center

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Question # 52

NAT rules are prioritized in which order?

1. Automatic Static NAT

2. Automatic Hide NAT

3. Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT

4. Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules

A.

1, 2, 3, 4

B.

1, 4, 2, 3

C.

3, 1, 2, 4

D.

4, 3, 1, 2

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Question # 53

What command would show the API server status?

A.

cpmstatus

B.

api restart

C.

api status

D.

show api status

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Question # 54

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

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Question # 55

What Shell is required in Gaia to use WinSCP?

A.

UNIX

B.

CPShell

C.

CLISH

D.

Bash

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Question # 56

The Check Point installation history feature in R80 provides the following:

A.

View install changes and install specific version.

B.

View install changes

C.

Policy Installation Date, view install changes and install specific version

D.

Policy Installation Date only

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Question # 57

What is the proper CLISH syntax to configure a default route via 192.168.255.1 in Gaia?

A.

setstatic-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.255.1 priority 1 on

B.

set static-route 192.168.255.0/24 nexthop gateway logical eth1 on

C.

set static-route 192.168.255.0/24 nexthop gateway address 192.168.255.1 priority 1 on

D.

set static-route nexthop default gateway logical 192.168.255.1 priority 1 on

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Question # 58

SmartEvent provides a convenient way to run common command line executables that can assist ininvestigating events. Right-clicking the IP address, source or destination, in a event provides a list of default and customized commands. They appear only on cells that refer to IP addresses because the IP address of the active cell is used as the destination of the command when run. The default commands are:

A.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and route

B.

ping, nslookup, Telnet, and route

C.

ping, whois, nslookup, and Telnet

D.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and nslookup

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Question # 59

What are types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of R80.10 code?

A.

Security Gateway API, Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API

B.

Management API, Threat Prevention API, Identity Awareness Web Services API and OPSEC SDK API

C.

OSE API, OPSEC SDK API, Threat Extraction API and Policy Editor API

D.

CPMI API, Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API

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Question # 60

Return oriented programming (ROP) exploits are detected by which security blade?

A.

Check Point Anti-Virus / Threat Emulation

B.

Intrusion PreventionSoftware

C.

Application control

D.

Data Loss Prevention

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Question # 61

Fill in the blank: The R80 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot __________.

A.

User data basecorruption

B.

LDAP conflicts

C.

Traffic issues

D.

Phase two key negotiation

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Question # 62

Check Point recommends configuring Disk Space Management parameters to delete old log entities when available disk space is less than or equal to?

A.

50%

B.

75%

C.

80%

D.

15%

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Question # 63

What happens if the identity of a user is known?

A.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal.

B.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox.

C.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped.

D.

If the user credentials match an Access Role, the rule is applied and traffic is accepted or dropped based on the defined action.

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Question # 64

Which command allows you to view the contents of an R80 table?

A.

fw tab -a

B.

fw tab-t

C.

fw tab -s

D.

fw tab -x

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Question # 65

Match the followingcommands to their correct function.

Each command has one function only listed.

A.

C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5

B.

C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4

C.

C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5

D.

C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F2

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Question # 66

When using AD Query to authenticate users for IdentityAwareness, identity data is received seamlessly from the Microsoft Active Directory (AD). What is NOT a recommended usage of this method?

A.

Leveraging identity in the application control blade

B.

Basic identity enforcement in the internal network

C.

Identity-based auditing and logging

D.

Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)

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Question # 67

Where can you find the Check Point’s SNMP MIB file?

A.

$CPDIR/lib/snmp/chkpt.mib

B.

$FWDIR/conf/snmp.mib

C.

It is obtained only by request from the TAC.

D.

There is no specific MIB file for Check Point products.

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Question # 68

In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When Network Address Translation is used:

A.

It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.

B.

It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.

C.

TheSecurity Gateway’s ARP file must be modified.

D.

VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.

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Question # 69

In the Rule Base displayed, user authentication in Rule 4 isconfigured as fully automatic. Eric is a member of the LDAP group, MSD_Group.

What happens when Eric tries to connect to a server on the Internet?

A.

None of these things will happen.

B.

Eric will be authenticated and get access to therequested server.

C.

Eric will be blocked because LDAP is not allowed in the Rule Base.

D.

Eric will be dropped by the Stealth Rule.

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Question # 70

Jennifer McHanry is CEO of ACME. Sherecently bought her own personal iPad. She wants use her iPad to access the internal Finance Web server. Because the iPad is not a member of the Active Directory domain, she cannot identify seamlessly with AD Query. However, she can enter her AD credentials in the Captive Portal and then get the same access as on her office computer. Her access to resources is based on rules in the R80 Firewall Rule Base.

To make this scenario work, the IT administrator must:

1) Enable Identity Awareness on a gateway and select Captive Portal as one of the Identity Sources.

2) In the Portal Settings window in the User Access section, make sure that Name and password login is selected.

3) Create a new rule in the Firewall Rule Base to let Jennifer McHanry accessnetwork destinations. Select accept as the Action.

Ms. McHanry tries to access the resource but is unable. What should she do?

A.

Have the security administrator select the Action field of the Firewall Rule “Redirect HTTP connections to an authentication (captive) portal”

B.

Have the security administrator reboot the firewall

C.

Have the security administrator select Any for the Machines tab in the appropriate Access Role

D.

Install the Identity Awareness agent on her iPad

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Question # 71

You have three servers located in a DMZ, using private IP addresses. You wantinternal users from 10.10.10.x to access the DMZ servers by public IP addresses. Internal_net 10.10.10.x is configured for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway’s external interface.

What is the best configuration for 10.10.10.x users to access the DMZservers, using the DMZ servers’ public IP addresses?

A.

When connecting to internal network 10.10.10.x, configure Hide NAT for the DMZ network behind the Security Gateway DMZ interface.

B.

When the source is the internal network 10.10.10.x, configure manual static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.

C.

When connecting to the Internet, configure manual Static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.

D.

When trying to access DMZ servers, configure Hide NAT for 10.10.10.x behind the DMZ’sinterface.

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Question # 72

Captive Portal is a __________ that allows the gateway to request login information from the user.

A.

Pre-configured and customizable web-based tool

B.

Transparent network inspection tool

C.

LDAP serveradd-on

D.

Separately licensed feature

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Question # 73

Which Check Point address translation method is necessary if you want to connect from a host on the Internet via HTTP to a server with a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address on your DMZ?

A.

Dynamic Source Address Translation

B.

Hide Address Translation

C.

Port Address Translation

D.

Static Destination Address Translation

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Question # 74

Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?

A.

fw cpinfo

B.

cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt

C.

diag

D.

cpstat - date.cpstat.txt

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Question # 75

The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in Global Properties and testing. He managed to lockhimself out of his account. How can you unlock this account?

A.

Type fwm unlock_admin from the Security Management Server command line.

B.

Type fwm unlock_admin -u from the Security Gateway command line.

C.

Type fwm lock_admin -u from theSecurity Management Server command line.

D.

Delete the file admin.lock in the Security Management Server directory $FWDIR/tmp/.

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