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CCSK Exam Dumps - Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (v5.0)

Question # 4

What is a key consideration when implementing AI workloads to ensure they adhere to security best practices?

A.

AI workloads do not require special security considerations compared to other workloads.

B.

AI workloads should be openly accessible to foster collaboration and innovation.

C.

AI workloads should be isolated in secure environments with strict access controls.

D.

Security practices for AI workloads should focus solely on protecting the AI models.

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Question # 5

Which aspect of cloud architecture ensures that a system can handle growing amounts of work efficiently?

A.

Reliability

B.

Security

C.

Performance

D.

Scalability

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Question # 6

In a cloud environment, what does the Shared Security Responsibility Model primarily aim to define?

A.

The division of security responsibilities between cloud providers and customers

B.

The relationships between IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS providers

C.

The compliance with geographical data residency and sovereignty

D.

The guidance for the cloud compliance framework

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Question # 7

Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?

A.

Scalability and redundancy

B.

Improved software development methodologies

C.

Enhanced security and compliance

D.

Cost efficiency and speed to market

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Question # 8

Which of the following strategies best enhances infrastructure resilience against Cloud Service Provider (CSP) technical failures?

A.

Local backup

B.

Multi-region resiliency

C.

Single-region resiliency

D.

High Availability within one data center

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Question # 9

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

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Question # 10

In a containerized environment, what is fundamental to ensuring runtime protection for deployed containers?

A.

Implementing real-time visibility

B.

Deploying container-specific antivirus scanning

C.

Using static code analysis tools in the pipeline

D.

Full packet network monitoring

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Question # 11

What is the primary reason dynamic and expansive cloud environments require agile security approaches?

A.

To reduce costs associated with physical hardware

B.

To simplify the deployment of virtual machines

C.

To quickly respond to evolving threats and changing infrastructure

D.

To ensure high availability and load balancing

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Question # 12

Which principle reduces security risk by granting users only the permissions essential for their role?

A.

Role-Based Access Control

B.

Unlimited Access

C.

Mandatory Access Control

D.

Least-Privileged Access

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Question # 13

Which concept focuses on maintaining the same configuration for all infrastructure components, ensuring they do not change once deployed?

A.

Component credentials

B.

Immutable infrastructure

C.

Infrastructure as code

D.

Application integration

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Question # 14

Which areas should be initially prioritized for hybrid cloud security?

A.

Cloud storage management and governance

B.

Data center infrastructure and architecture

C.

IAM and networking

D.

Application development and deployment

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Question # 15

How does serverless computing impact infrastructure management responsibility?

A.

Requires extensive on-premises infrastructure

B.

Shifts more responsibility to cloud service providers

C.

Increases workload for developers

D.

Eliminates need for cloud service providers

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Question # 16

What tool allows teams to easily locate and integrate with approved cloud services?

A.

Contracts

B.

Shared Responsibility Model

C.

Service Registry

D.

Risk Register

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Question # 17

Which of the following best describes how cloud computing manages shared resources?

A.

Through virtualization, with administrators allocating resources based on SLAs

B.

Through abstraction and automation to distribute resources to customers

C.

By allocating physical systems to a single customer at a time

D.

Through manual configuration of resources for each user need

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Question # 18

Which of the following best describes the primary benefit of utilizing cloud telemetry sources in cybersecurity?

A.

They reduce the cost of cloud services.

B.

They provide visibility into cloud environments.

C.

They enhance physical security.

D.

They encrypt cloud data at rest.

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Question # 19

When designing a cloud-native application that requires scalable and durable data storage, which storage option should be primarily considered?

A.

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

B.

Block storage

C.

File storage

D.

Object storage

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Question # 20

In the context of cloud security, what is the primary benefit of implementing Identity and Access Management (IAM) with attributes and user context for access decisions?

A.

Enhances security by supporting authorizations based on the current context and status

B.

Reduces log analysis requirements

C.

Simplifies regulatory compliance by using a single sign-on mechanism

D.

These are required for proper implementation of RBAC

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Question # 21

Why is snapshot management crucial for the virtual machine (VM) lifecycle?

A.

It allows for quick restoration points during updates or changes

B.

It is used for load balancing VMs

C.

It enhances VM performance significantly

D.

It provides real-time analytics on VM applications

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Question # 22

How can Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies on keys ensure adherence to the principle of least privilege?

A.

By rotating keys on a regular basis

B.

By using default policies for all keys

C.

By specifying fine-grained permissions

D.

By granting root access to administrators

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Question # 23

What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

A.

To create a separation between development and operations

B.

To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

C.

To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery

D.

To reduce the development team size by merging roles

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Question # 24

In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

A.

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

B.

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

C.

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

D.

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

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Question # 25

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of cloud-native security breaches?

A.

Inability to monitor cloud infrastructure for threats

B.

IAM failures

C.

Lack of encryption for data at rest

D.

Vulnerabilities in cloud provider's physical infrastructure

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Question # 26

What is the primary purpose of cloud governance in an organization?

A.

To increase data transfer speeds within the cloud environment

B.

To reduce the cost of cloud services

C.

To ensure compliance, security, and efficient management aligned with the organization's goals

D.

To eliminate the need for on-premises data centers

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Question # 27

Which feature in cloud enhances security by isolating deployments similar to deploying in distinct data centers?

A.

A single deployment for all applications

B.

Shared deployments for similar applications

C.

Randomized deployment configurations

D.

Multiple independent deployments for applications

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Question # 28

Network logs from cloud providers are typically flow records, not full packet captures.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 29

What can be implemented to help with account granularity and limit

blast radius with laaS an PaaS?

A.

Configuring secondary authentication

B.

Establishing multiple accounts

C.

Maintaining tight control of the primary account holder credentials

D.

Implementing least privilege accounts

E.

Configuring role-based authentication

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Question # 30

When configured properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure, and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the test results.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 31

Which of the following statements best describes an identity

federation?

A.

A library of data definitions

B.

A group of entities which have decided to exist together in a single

cloud

C.

Identities which share similar attributes

D.

Several countries which have agreed to define their identities with

similar attributes

E.

The connection of one identity repository to another

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Question # 32

Which of the following encryption methods would be utilized when object storage is used as the back-end for an application?

A.

Database encryption

B.

Media encryption

C.

Asymmetric encryption

D.

Object encryption

E.

Client/application encryption

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Question # 33

How does running applications on distinct virtual networks and only connecting networks as needed help?

A.

It reduces hardware costs

B.

It provides dynamic and granular policies with less management overhead

C.

It locks down access and provides stronger data security

D.

It reduces the blast radius of a compromised system

E.

It enables you to configure applications around business groups

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Question # 34

Which concept is a mapping of an identity, including roles, personas, and attributes, to an authorization?

A.

Access control

B.

Federated Identity Management

C.

Authoritative source

D.

Entitlement

E.

Authentication

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Question # 35

What are the encryption options available for SaaS consumers?

A.

Any encryption option that is available for volume storage, object storage, or PaaS

B.

Provider-managed and (sometimes) proxy encryption

C.

Client/application and file/folder encryption

D.

Object encryption Volume storage encryption

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Question # 36

When designing an encryption system, you should start with a threat model.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 37

Which statement best describes why it is important to know how data is being accessed?

A.

The devices used to access data have different storage formats.

B.

The devices used to access data use a variety of operating systems and may have different programs installed on them.

C.

The device may affect data dispersion.

D.

The devices used to access data use a variety of applications or clients and may have different security characteristics.

E.

The devices used to access data may have different ownership characteristics.

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Question # 38

When mapping functions to lifecycle phases, which functions are required to successfully process data?

A.

Create, Store, Use, and Share

B.

Create and Store

C.

Create and Use

D.

Create, Store, and Use

E.

Create, Use, Store, and Delete

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Question # 39

All cloud services utilize virtualization technologies.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 40

Which cloud storage technology is basically a virtual hard drive for instanced or VMs?

A.

Volume storage

B.

Platform

C.

Database

D.

Application

E.

Object storage

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Question # 41

What is true of searching data across cloud environments?

A.

You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data.

B.

The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls.

C.

All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable.

D.

Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider.

E.

You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.

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Question # 42

What is known as a code execution environment running within an operating system that shares and uses the resources of the operating system?

A.

Platform-based Workload

B.

Pod

C.

Abstraction

D.

Container

E.

Virtual machine

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Question # 43

Which of the following is one of the five essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by NIST?

A.

Multi-tenancy

B.

Nation-state boundaries

C.

Measured service

D.

Unlimited bandwidth

E.

Hybrid clouds

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Question # 44

What is true of companies considering a cloud computing business relationship?

A.

The laws protecting customer data are based on the cloud provider and customer location only.

B.

The confidentiality agreements between companies using cloud computing services is limited legally to the company, not the provider.

C.

The companies using the cloud providers are the custodians of the data entrusted to them.

D.

The cloud computing companies are absolved of all data security and associated risks through contracts and data laws.

E.

The cloud computing companies own all customer data.

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Question # 45

What is known as the interface used to connect with the metastructure and configure the cloud environment?

A.

Administrative access

B.

Management plane

C.

Identity and Access Management

D.

Single sign-on

E.

Cloud dashboard

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Question # 46

Which of the following is NOT normally a method for detecting and preventing data migration into the cloud?

A.

Intrusion Prevention System

B.

URL filters

C.

Data Loss Prevention

D.

Cloud Access and Security Brokers (CASB)

E.

Database Activity Monitoring

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Question # 47

A security failure at the root network of a cloud provider will not compromise the security of all customers because of multitenancy configuration.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 48

Why is a service type of network typically isolated on different hardware?

A.

It requires distinct access controls

B.

It manages resource pools for cloud consumers

C.

It has distinct functions from other networks

D.

It manages the traffic between other networks

E.

It requires unique security

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Question # 49

What is true of security as it relates to cloud network infrastructure?

A.

You should apply cloud firewalls on a per-network basis.

B.

You should deploy your cloud firewalls identical to the existing firewalls.

C.

You should always open traffic between workloads in the same virtual subnet for better visibility.

D.

You should implement a default allow with cloud firewalls and then restrict as necessary.

E.

You should implement a default deny with cloud firewalls.

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Question # 50

Which governance domain focuses on proper and adequate incident detection, response, notification, and remediation?

A.

Data Security and Encryption

B.

Information Governance

C.

Incident Response, Notification and Remediation

D.

Compliance and Audit Management

E.

Infrastructure Security

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Question # 51

Which term describes any situation where the cloud consumer does

not manage any of the underlying hardware or virtual machines?

A.

Serverless computing

B.

Virtual machineless

C.

Abstraction

D.

Container

E.

Provider managed

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Question # 52

Containers are highly portable code execution environments.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 53

How can key management be leveraged to prevent cloud providers from inappropriately accessing customer data?

A.

Use strong multi-factor authentication

B.

Secure backup processes for key management systems

C.

Segregate keys from the provider hosting data

D.

Stipulate encryption in contract language

E.

Select cloud providers within the same country as customer

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