CV0-003 Exam Dumps - CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam

An incident response plan is a document or procedure that defines the roles, responsibilities, and actions to be taken in the event of a security incident or breach. Having a detailed incident response plan can help mitigate the risk of a zero-day vulnerability most efficiently, as it can provide a clear and consistent framework for identifying, containing, analyzing, and resolving any potential threats or exploits related to the unknown or unpatched vulnerability. Having a detailed incident response plan can also help minimize the impact and damage of a security incident or breach, as it can enable timely and effective recovery and restoration processes. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

ROUTE PRINT is a command that displays the routing table of a system, which shows the destination network, the gateway, the interface, and the metric for each route. ROUTE PRINT can help identify the issue of the weekly backup failing for this server, as it can show if there is a valid route to the network backup segment (10.20.0.0/25) from the production traffic segment (10.10.0.0/24). If there is no route or an incorrect route, the backup will fail to reach the destination. The administrator can use ROUTE PRINT to verify and troubleshoot the routing configuration of the server. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 16, section 3.2

A virtual application delivery controller (vADC) is a type of network device or software that provides load balancing, security, and optimization for web applications or services. Deploying a vADC appliance can help prevent an outage of the organization’s web server infrastructure due to a spike in network traffic, as it can distribute the traffic across multiple web servers and improve the performance and availability of web applications or services. Deploying a vADC appliance can also provide mitigation methods such as DDoS protection, SSL offloading, and caching to enhance the security and efficiency of web traffic delivery. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

A vGPU profile is a configuration option that defines the amount of video RAM (vRAM) and other resources that are allocated to a virtual machine (VM) that uses a virtual graphics processing unit (vGPU). A vGPU profile can affect the rendering performance of a VM, as it determines how much graphics memory and processing power are available for displaying complex graphics content. Selecting vGPU profiles with higher video RAM can most likely solve the issue of poor rendering performance when trying to display 3-D content on virtual desktops, especially at peak times, as it can provide more graphics resources and improve the quality and speed of rendering. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 11, section 1.6

A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a type of security solution that acts as a gateway between cloud service users and cloud service providers. A CASB can help a company get multiple compliance and security certifications for its public cloud environment, as it can provide visibility, control, and protection for cloud data and applications. A CASB can also help the company handle the extra workload and overcome the limited knowledge of the current infrastructure, as it can automate and simplify the enforcement of security policies and compliance requirements across multiple cloud services. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

The best way to resolve the issue where the autoscaling configuration is creating a new VM every five minutes after deploying a new CI/CD tool to automate new releases of the web application and configuring a script to be executed by the VMs during bootstrapping is to debug the script and redeploy it. Debugging the script means finding and fixing any errors or bugs in the code or logic of the script that may cause unexpected or undesired behavior, such as triggering the autoscaling condition or failing to complete the bootstrapping process. Redeploying the script means updating or replacing the existing script with the corrected or improved version of the script. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0 Troubleshooting, Objective 4.5 Given a scenario, troubleshoot automation/orchestration issues.

 The best storage technology to configure for maximum performance and redundancy is RAID 10 (Redundant Array of Independent Disks 10). RAID 10 is a combination of RAID 1 (mirroring) and RAID 0 (striping) that provides both fault tolerance and improved performance. RAID 10 divides and replicates the data across multiple disks in pairs, creating mirrored sets, and then stripes the data across those sets, creating a striped set. RAID 10 can withstand multiple disk failures as long as they are not in the same mirrored set, and can also increase the read and write speed by parallelizing the disk operations. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 1.0 Configuration and Deployment, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario involving requirements for deploying an application in the cloud, select an appropriate solution design.

HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) is the tool that will provide the administrator with the most information about potential attacks on a cloud IaaS instance. HIDS is a software or agent that monitors and analyzes the activities and events on a host system or device, such as a cloud instance. HIDS can detect and alert on any malicious or anomalous behavior, such as unauthorized access, malware infection, configuration changes, etc., that may indicate an attack or compromise.