SK0-005 Exam Dumps - CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam

Memory and CPU are two metrics that can be used for monitoring system utilization. Memory refers to the amount of RAM that is available and used by the system and its processes. CPU refers to the percentage of processor time that is consumed by the system and its processes. Both memory and CPU can affect the performance and responsiveness of the system and its applications. Monitoring memory and CPU can help identify bottlenecks, resource contention, memory leaks, high load, etc.

A kernel upgrade is a process of updating the core component of a Linux operating system that manages the hardware, memory, processes, and drivers. A kernel upgrade can improve the performance, security, and compatibility of the system, but it can also introduce errors if some modules are not compatible with the new kernel version. Modules are pieces of code that can be loaded and unloaded into the kernel to provide additional functionality or support for specific devices. If a module is not compatible with the kernel, it can cause crashes or instability.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Lesson 4.2, Objective 4.2

DLP (Data Loss Prevention) is a security measure that prevents unauthorized copying, transferring, or leaking of sensitive data from a server or a network. It can block or alert the user when they try to copy a file to certain locations, such as a network share or a USB flash drive, based on predefined policies and rules. Verified References: [DLP], [Data loss]

chmod is a command-line tool that changes the permissions of files and directories in Linux and Unix systems. chmod go-rwx means to remove read, write, and execute permissions for group and other users from a file or directory. This can ensure only the root user can modify and execute the script, since root user has full access to all files and directories regardless of their permissions. References: https://linux.die.net/man/1/chmod

A tabletop exercise is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that is primarily used to discuss incident response strategies for critical systems without affecting production data. A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based session where team members meet in an informal, classroom setting to review their roles and responsibilities during an emergency and their responses to a hypothetical scenario. A facilitator guides the participants through the discussion and evaluates the strengths and weaknesses of the preparedness program. A tabletop exercise does not involve any actual deployment of resources or activation of systems12. A backup recovery test (B) is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves restoring data from backup media to verify its integrity and availability. A backup recovery test may affect production data if it is not performed on a separate environment. A live failover © is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves switching operations from a primary site to a secondary site in case of a failure or disruption. A live failover may affect production data if it is not performed on a simulated environment. A hot-site visit audit (D) is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves inspecting and evaluating a hot site, which is a backup location that has fully operational equipment and resources to resume business operations in case of a disaster. A hot-site visit audit does not involve any discussion of incident response strategies or simulation of scenarios. References: 1 https://www.ready.gov/testing-exercises  2 https://www.ready.gov/exercises

Per core licensing is based on the number of logical processors a server has. A logical processor is either a physical core or a virtual core created by hyperthreading. Per core licensing requires purchasing a license for each logical processor on the server. Verified References: [Per core licensing], [Logical processor]

If drive C is running out of space and there is unallocated space available on the disk, the best solution is to partition the unallocated space and extend drive C to include the new partition. This can be done without significant downtime and will immediately provide more space for the system.

Partition the unallocated space (Answer E): This is the simplest and least disruptive method to increase the available space on drive C.

Decreasing the page/swap file (Option A): This may free up some space but can negatively impact system performance.

Reformatting (Option B): Reformatting would result in significant downtime and data loss, making it an impractical option.

Whole disk encryption (Option C): This does not solve the issue of disk space.

Enforcing disk quotas (Option D): Disk quotas manage space usage but won’t free up space on drive C.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot common server problems.

Applying security updates is one of the common operating system hardening methods that can help protect the OS from cyberattacks and vulnerabilities. Security updates are released by the OS developer to fix bugs, patch security holes, and improve performance. By installing the latest updates, the server administrator can ensure that the OS is up to date and secure12.

Port 21 is used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol), which is a protocol that transfers files between servers and clients in cleartext, meaning that anyone can intercept and read the data. To stop this communication, port 21 should be closed on the web server and replaced with a secure protocol, such as SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) or FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure), which use encryption to protect the data. Verified References: [FTP vs SFTP vs FTPS]

RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a technology that combines multiple hard drives into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, or capacity. RAID can be implemented by hardware, software, or a combination of both. Hardware RAID uses a dedicated controller to manage the RAID array, while software RAID uses the operating system or a driver to do the same1.

In this scenario, the technician noted that the RAID hard drives were functional while troubleshooting a motherboard failure. This means that the data on the drives was not corrupted or lost. However, the technician installed a spare motherboard with similar specifications and used the original components. This means that the new motherboard may not have the same RAID configuration as the old one, or it may not recognize the existing RAID array at all. Therefore, the technician needs to reconfigure the RAID in order to restore operations with minimal downtime.

Push notifications are messages that are sent from an application or a service to a user’s device without requiring the user to open or request them. They can be used as a cost-effective technique for implementing MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) on servers by sending verification codes or approval requests to the user’s smartphone or tablet when they try to log in to the server. Verified References: [Push notifications], [MFA]

A mantrap is a security device that consists of two interlocking doors that allow only one person to enter at a time. A mantrap would prevent employees from blocking the door in the main data center and force them to enter properly using their credentials. The other options would not enforce proper entry to the data center

According to the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology, the fourth step is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution1. The best practice is to test each solution individually to determine the root cause, rolling back the changes in between each test. This way, the technician can isolate the cause and avoid introducing new problems or making the situation worse. Testing each solution in succession and restoring the server from the latest snapshot (D) is not a good option because it may not identify the root cause and may overwrite important data. Implementing the shortest solution first to identify the issue and minimize downtime © is also not a good option because it may not solve the problem or may create new issues. Consulting internet forums to determine which is the most common cause and deploy only that solution (A) is not a good option because it may not apply to the specific situation or may be outdated or inaccurate

A database server is a server that hosts a database management system (DBMS) that stores, organizes, and manipulates data. A database server is suitable for housing customer sales records, as it can provide fast and secure access, query and analysis capabilities, backup and recovery options, and scalability and performance optimization. Some examples of database servers are Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle Database, MySQL, and PostgreSQL. Verified References: [What is a Database Server?]

FinanceApp software is running as a service named “FinanceApp Service”. The service description says “Provides financial data and calculations for the FinanceApp software”. The service status is “Stopped”, which means that the service is not running and the software is not functional. The service startup type is “Manual”, which means that the service needs to be started manually by the user or the administrator. The service log on as is “Local System”, which means that the service runs under a predefined local account that has extensive privileges on the local computer.

To fix the issue with the FinanceApp software, you need to do two things:

First, you need to start the service, so that the software can run. To do this, you can right-click on the service name and select “Start” from the menu. Alternatively, you can select the service name and click on the “Start” button on the toolbar. You should see a message saying that the service has started successfully.

Second, you need to change the service startup type, so that the service can start automatically every time the server boots up. This way, you don’t have to contact the help desk every time the issue occurs. To do this, you can right-click on the service name and select “Properties” from the menu. Alternatively, you can select the service name and click on the “Properties” button on the toolbar. You should see a window with several tabs and options. On the “General” tab, under “Startup type”, you can select “Automatic” from the drop-down list. Then, click on “OK” to save your changes.

By doing these two steps, you should be able to use the FinanceApp software without any problems.

The MarketApp software is running as a service named “MarketApp Service”. The service description says “Provides market data and analysis for the MarketApp software”. The service status is “Running”, which means that the service is running and the software is functional. However, as you reported, the software may crash sometimes, which can cause significant downtime. The service startup type is “Automatic”, which means that the service starts automatically every time the server boots up. The service log on as is “TestAccount”, which is a test account that was probably used for development or testing purposes.

To fix the issue with the MarketApp software, you need to do one thing:

You need to change the service log on as, so that the service runs under a proper account that has sufficient permissions and security settings for production use. To do this, you can right-click on the service name and select “Properties” from the menu. Alternatively, you can select the service name and click on the “Properties” button on the toolbar. You should see a window with several tabs and options. On the “Log On” tab, under “Log on as”, you can select either “Local System account” or “This account”. If you choose “Local System account”, then the service will run under a predefined local account that has extensive privileges on the local computer. If you choose “This account”, then you will need to enter a valid username and password for an account that has appropriate permissions and security settings for running the service. You may need to consult with your IT team or your software vendor to determine which option is best for your situation. Then, click on “OK” to save your changes.

Port 443 is the default port for HTTPS, which is the protocol used for secure web communication. HTTPS uses SSL/TLS certificates to encrypt the data between the web server and the browser. Port 443 is commonly used for web servers that need to provide secure services, such as online banking, e-commerce, or email. By allowing port 443, the administrator can access the web server’s interface and manage its settings1.

Port 3389 is the default port for RDP, which is the protocol used for remote desktop connection. RDP allows a user to remotely access and control another computer over a network. Port 3389 is commonly used for remote administration, technical support, or remote work. By allowing port 3389, the administrator can connect to the web server’s desktop and perform tasks that require graphical user interface2.

Shipping is a process of sending logs from one system to another system for centralized storage and analysis. Shipping can help ensure compliance with regulations that require financial systems logs to be stored in a central location. Shipping can also help improve security, performance, and scalability of log management. References: https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 3.4)

The per-concurrent user licensing model is a type of licensing model that restricts the number of active sessions or connections to a software application at any given time. This means that multiple users can share the same license, as long as they do not access the application simultaneously. This model is often used for applications that are accessed intermittently or for a short duration by different users, such as remote access software, web-based applications, or testing tools12.

A public cloud is a cloud model that provides shared resources and services over the internet to multiple users or organizations. The cloud provider owns and manages the infrastructure and charges users based on their usage or subscription. A public cloud can offer scalability, flexibility, and cost-efficiency for users who need access to various applications and data without investing in their own hardware or software. Verified References: [Public cloud], [Cloud model]

A host firewall is a software that controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a server based on predefined rules and filters. It can block or allow certain ports, protocols, or addresses that are used for communication with other servers or devices. If a server is unable to connect to another server after applying a patch, it is possible that the patch changed or added a firewall rule that prevents the connection. The administrator should check the host firewall rule and modify it if necessary to restore connectivity. Verified References: [Host firewall], [Network connection]

A warm site is a type of disaster recovery site that has some pre-installed hardware, software, and network connections, but not as much as a hot site. A warm site also has some backup data, but not as current as a hot site. A warm site requires some time and effort to become fully operational in the event of a disaster. A hot site is a disaster recovery site that has all infrastructure and live data, and can take over the primary site’s operations immediately. A cold site is a disaster recovery site that has no infrastructure or data, and requires significant time and resources to set up. References:

https://www.enterprisestorageforum.com/management/disaster-recovery-site/

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/3780/warm-site

A subnet mask is a number that distinguishes the network address and the host address within an IP address1. A subnet mask allows network traffic to understand IP addresses by splitting them into the network and host addresses. If the subnet mask is incorrect, the network traffic may not be able to determine the correct destination for the packets, and only reach some of the servers that have similar IP addresses. For example, if the new virtual server has an IP address of 192.168.1.100 and a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0, it can only communicate with servers that have IP addresses in the range of 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.2552. To fix this issue, the systems administrator needs to check and correct the subnet mask of the new virtual server according to the network configuration.

NIC stands for network interface card, which is a hardware component that allows a server to connect to a network. Configuring NICs in pairs on a server would provide network redundancy, meaning that if one NIC fails, the other one can take over and maintain network connectivity. The other options are not related to network redundancy.

A sniffer is a tool that captures and analyzes network traffic on a subnet or a network interface. It can help identify the source, destination, protocol, and content of the traffic and detect any anomalies or issues on the network. Verified References: [Sniffer], [Network traffic]

Since both drives are in different RAID 1 arrays and both are hot-swappable, the most efficient step is to replace both failed drives at the same time. This can minimize the downtime and avoid unnecessary reboots. RAID 1 provides mirroring, which means that data is duplicated on both drives in the array. Therefore, replacing one drive will not affect the data on the other drive or the functionality of the array. References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels#RAID_1

GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a partitioning scheme that allows creating partitions on large hard drives (more than 2 TB). It supports up to 128 partitions per drive and uses 64-bit addresses to locate them. MBR (Master Boot Record) is an older partitioning scheme that has limitations on the size and number of partitions (up to 4 primary partitions or 3 primary and 1 extended partition per drive). To provision a new 4 TB drive, the technician should partition it using GPT. Verified References: [GPT], [MBR]

Fault tolerance is the ability of a system to continue functioning in the event of a failure of one or more of its components. Fault tolerance can ensure a secondary network path is available if the primary connection fails. Fault tolerance can be achieved by using redundant components, such as network cards, cables, switches, routers, etc., that can take over the function of the failed component without interrupting the service. References: https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 2.2)

RAID 10 is the RAID level that will yield the best combination of available space and redundancy when configuring a new server for use as a database server with two mirrored drives for the operating system and three drive bays remaining for storage. RAID 10, also known as RAID 1+0, is a RAID configuration that combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data. It requires a minimum of four disks and stripes data across mirrored pairs. As long as one disk in each mirrored pair is functional, data can be retrieved. RAID 10 provides high performance, fault tolerance, and fast recovery, but it reduces storage capacity by half. RAID 0 is a RAID configuration that splits data across two or more drives without parity or redundancy. It improves performance but offers no fault tolerance. If one drive fails in RAID 0, all data is lost and the system cannot boot. RAID 1 is a RAID configuration that duplicates data across two or more drives. It provides fault tolerance and improves read performance, but reduces storage capacity by half. If one drive fails in RAID 1, the other drive can continue to operate without data loss or system downtime. RAID 5 is a RAID configuration that stripes data across three or more drives with parity information. It provides fault tolerance and improves performance, but reduces storage capacity by one drive’s worth of space. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without data loss, but not two or more. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/199068/how-to-upgrade-your-existing-hard-drive-in-under-an-hour/ https://www.howtogeek.com/202794/wh at-is-the-difference-between-127.0.0.1-and-0.0.0.0/

End-of-life is the phase of lifecycle management that deals with a server that is no longer in operation. End-of-life means that the server has reached the end of its useful life and is no longer supported by the manufacturer or the service provider. End-of-life may also imply that the server is obsolete, incompatible, or inefficient for the current needs and standards1. End-of-life servers may be decommissioned, recycled, donated, or disposed of according to the organizational policies and environmental regulations

The most efficient subnet mask for a point-to-point heartbeat connection between two servers using IP addressing is /30. A /30 subnet mask has 255.255.255.252 as its decimal representation and 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111100 as its binary representation. This means that there are only two bits available for the host portion of the IP address, which allows for four possible combinations: 00, 01, 10, and 11. However, the first and the last combinations are reserved for the network address and the broadcast address, respectively. Therefore, only two IP addresses are usable for the point-to-point connection, which is the minimum required for such a link. A /30 subnet mask is also known as a point-to-point prefix because it is commonly used for point-to-point links between routers or servers1.

A /28 subnet mask has 255.255.255.240 as its decimal representation and 11111111.11111111.11111111.11110000 as its binary representation. This means that there are four bits available for the host portion of the IP address, which allows for 16 possible combinations. However, two of them are reserved for the network address and the broadcast address, respectively. Therefore, 14 IP addresses are usable for the subnet, which is more than needed for a point-to-point connection and would result in wasted addresses.

A /29 subnet mask has 255.255.255.248 as its decimal representation and 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000 as its binary representation. This means that there are three bits available for the host portion of the IP address, which allows for eight possible combinations. However, two of them are reserved for the network address and the broadcast address, respectively. Therefore, six IP addresses are usable for the subnet, which is still more than needed for a point-to-point connection and would result in wasted addresses.

A /32 subnet mask has 255.255.255.255 as its decimal representation and 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111111 as its binary representation. This means that there are no bits available for the host portion of the IP address, which allows for only one possible combination: all ones. Therefore, only one IP address is usable for the subnet, which is not enough for a point-to-point connection and would result in an invalid configuration.

Therefore, a /30 subnet mask is the most efficient choice for a point-to-point heartbeat connection between two servers using IP addressing because it provides exactly two usable IP addresses without wasting any addresses or creating any conflicts1.

Link aggregation is a technique that combines multiple physical network links into one logical link with higher bandwidth and redundancy. It can take advantage of all the available bandwidth of the NICs (Network Interface Cards) on the server and provide load balancing and failover capabilities for network traffic. Verified References: [Link aggregation], [NIC]

The cache is a temporary storage area that holds frequently accessed data or instructions for faster retrieval. The cache can improve the read times for accessing files by reducing the need to access the hard drive, which is slower than the cache memory1. Therefore, the first step the technician should take is to check if the cache is turned on for the new file server. If the cache is turned off, the technician should enable it and see if the read times improve. The other options are incorrect because they are not the first steps to take. Adding more memory, installing faster hard drives, or enabling link aggregation are possible ways to improve the performance of the file server, but they are more costly and time-consuming than checking the cache. Moreover, they may not address the root cause of the problem if the cache is turned off.

Kickstart Files (Linux): Kickstart files are configuration files that automate the Linux installation process. They contain pre-determined answers to installation prompts, allowing for identical and rapid deployment of multiple systems. (CompTIA Server+ Objectives SK0-004: 3.1, Red Hat documentation on Kickstart: https://access.redhat.com/documentation/ )

Why other options are less ideal:

VM Template (A): Templates are useful for replicating the OS & some software, but might not capture all configurations.

Manual Configuration (C): Time-consuming and prone to errors when replicating across many servers.

Copy/Paste via SSH (D): Tedious, error-prone, and requires servers to be online before configuration.

Cloning (E): Can work but has version compatibility risks if the OS of the cloned server isn't identical to the new ones.

The organization should retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them to ensure they are properly maintained and usable during a DR scenario. A cold site is a location that has space and power for backup equipment, but no actual equipment installed or configured. The organization stores backup tapes of its servers at cold sites as a precaution in case of a disaster that affects its primary site. However, backup tapes can degrade over time due to environmental factors such as temperature, humidity, dust, or magnetic fields. Therefore, the organization should periodically retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them on compatible equipment to verify their integrity and readability.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, Lesson 6.4, Objective 6.4

DLP, or Data Loss Prevention, is a type of security measure that aims to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can be applied to various types of data, such as email, cloud storage, network traffic, or fileshares1. DLP for fileshares can help monitor and control who can access, modify, or share files on a network share2. By turning on DLP for the fileshare and letting it propagate for a week, the administrator can audit the permissions of the fileshare and see if there are any violations or anomalies in the access patterns. This can help the administrator identify and remediate any potential risks or compliance issues related to the fileshare2. The other options are incorrect because they are not directly related to DLP for fileshares. Managing the fileshare from an RDP session or from the fileshare itself are administrative tasks that do not require DLP. Auditing the access to the physical fileshare is a physical security measure that is not affected by DLP.

HIDS (Host Intrusion Detection System): Continuously monitors a system for suspicious activity and logs or raises alerts when potential threats are identified. This proactive approach is crucial for identifying and mitigating threats on a web server exposed to the external network.

Applying OS updates: While essential for maintaining system security, updates address vulnerabilities and may not necessarily identify ongoing threats.

Disabling unused services: Reduces the attack surface by minimizing potential entry points for malicious actors, but doesn't actively identify threats.

Installing anti-malware: Primarily designed to detect and remove malware after infection, not for ongoing threat identification.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Objectives (Exam codes SK0-004 or SK0-005): Search for sections on intrusion detection and prevention.

The most effective way to mitigate risks associated with privacy-related data leaks when sharing with a third party is customer data encryption and masking. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a key or password. Masking is a process of hiding or replacing sensitive data with fake or meaningless data. By encrypting and masking customer data, the organization can protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure by the third party.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Lesson 3.3, Objective 3.3

The first thing that the administrator should check is the network cable. The network cable is a physical medium that connects a server to a switch or other network device. The network cable can affect the speed and quality of the network connection, depending on its type, length, and condition. If the network cable is damaged, faulty, or incompatible, it can cause the server to connect at a lower speed than expected. Therefore, the administrator should check the network cable for any signs of wear, tear, or mismatch, and replace it if necessary.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2, Lesson 2.1, Objective 2.1

An action that the administrator should take to harden the hardware of a new server is to set a BIOS password. BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is a firmware that initializes the hardware components and settings of a system before loading the operating system. BIOS password is a security feature that requires a user to enter a password before accessing or modifying the BIOS settings or booting up the system. By setting a BIOS password, the administrator can prevent unauthorized or malicious users from changing the hardware configuration or boot order of the server.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, Lesson 5.1, Objective 5.1

Drive encryption is a form of data-at-rest encryption that encrypts the entire hard drive or solid state drive. This means that all the data on the drive, including the operating system, applications, and files, are protected from unauthorized access. Drive encryption is usually implemented at the hardware or firmware level, and requires a password, PIN, or biometric authentication to unlock the drive. Drive encryption is the most comprehensive and secure way to achieve data-at-rest encryption, as it prevents anyone from accessing the data without the proper credentials, even if they physically remove the drive from the server.

References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 9: Security, page 367.

 Application consistent backup is a method of backing up data that ensures the integrity and consistency of the application state. It involves notifying the application to flush its data from memory to disk and quiescing any write operations before taking a snapshot of the data. If the databases were not backed up to be application consistent, they might contain incomplete or corrupted data that cannot be restored properly.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 12

What is Application Consistent Backup and How to Achieve It2

Application-Consistent Backups3

The server is shutting down after being powered on, which could indicate overheating. This is a common issue when fans fail, causing the CPU or other components to overheat and forcing the system to shut down to protect itself from damage.

Check for fan failure (Answer B): Ensuring the server’s cooling system is functioning properly is crucial. Overheating due to a fan failure can cause the system to shut down automatically.

Resetting memory modules (Option A): While memory issues can cause system instability, they generally do not lead to immediate shutdowns as described.

Changing the VM password (Option C): This is unrelated to the shutdown issue.

Setting credentials for the remote console (Option D): This is irrelevant to the described problem of server shutdown.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 3.3: Diagnose hardware and software issues.

A security guard is a human element in physical security, making them susceptible to social engineering attacks. Social engineering exploits human behavior, and a guard can be tricked into allowing unauthorized access through persuasion, manipulation, or deception.

Security guard (Answer A): Human elements are the most vulnerable to social engineering techniques like impersonation or manipulation.

Access control vestibule (Option B): This is a physical security barrier, which is harder to exploit through social engineering.

Perimeter fencing (Option C): This is a static physical barrier, not susceptible to social engineering.

Biometric locks (Option D): These rely on biological data and are not susceptible to social engineering in the same way a human would be.

Bollards (Option E): Physical barriers that are not vulnerable to social engineering.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic relates to SK0-005 Objective 4.4: Implement physical security controls.

 Application consistent backup is a method of backing up data that ensures the integrity and consistency of the application state. It involves notifying the application to flush its data from memory to disk and quiescing any write operations before taking a snapshot of the data. If the databases were not backed up to be application consistent, they might contain incomplete or corrupted data that cannot be restored properly.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 12

What is Application Consistent Backup and How to Achieve It2

Application-Consistent Backups3

Drives, fans, and power supplies are server components that can most commonly be replaced without downtime if they are hot-swappable. Hot-swappable components can be removed and inserted while the server is running, without affecting its operation or performance. Drives store data and applications, fans cool down the server components, and power supplies provide electricity to the server. Replacing these components can prevent data loss, overheating, or power failure. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Hardware, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, install, configure and maintain server components.

When a virtual server crashes and presents a Purple Screen of Death (PSOD), the immediate response should be to document the incident. Collecting a screenshot of the PSOD is crucial as it contains error codes and state information that can be used for diagnosing the root cause of the crash. Noting the details, especially those that come after the line detailing the OS version, can provide specific clues to what might have caused the server to crash. This is a standard best practice before rebooting the server, as it ensures that there is a record of the event to investigate and potentially prevent future occurrences. A hard reboot should only be done after this critical information has been recorded.

Using a network-based deployment, such as network booting (PXE - Preboot Execution Environment) or imaging through a server, is the most efficient way to load operating systems onto multiple machines simultaneously. This approach minimizes the manual intervention required for each device, as the administrator can initiate the operating system installation or imaging process across all desktops at once through the network. In contrast, using an SD card, DVD (Optical), or USB would require the administrator to physically move the media from one desktop to another, significantly increasing the setup time for each device.

A cold site is a backup facility with little or no hardware equipment installed. A cold site is the most cost-effective option among the three disaster recovery sites. However, due to the fact that a cold site doesn’t have any pre-installed equipment, it takes a lot of time to properly set it up so as to fully resume business operations1.

References = 1: Disaster Recovery Sites Comparison: Which one to Choose? - NAKIVO(https://www.nakivo.com/blog/overview-disaster-recovery-sites/)

QSFP+ (Quad Small Form-Factor Pluggable Plus): This transceiver type is designed specifically to handle 40Gbps network speeds. QSFP+ connectors are hot-swappable and support various cable types, including fiber optic and copper (DAC).

10GigE: While a valid network technology, 10GigE only supports up to 10Gbps, not the required 40Gbps.

SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable): A common transceiver type, but the standard SFP only supports a maximum of 1Gbps.

SFP+ (Enhanced Small Form-factor Pluggable): Supports up to 10Gbps, not sufficient for 40Gbps in this scenario.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Objectives (Exam codes SK0-004 or SK0-005): Search for sections on networking standards and transceiver types.

A perpetual license is a one-time purchase that allows the software to be used indefinitely without recurring costs. This meets the requirement of a non-renewing, one-time capital expense.

Perpetual (Answer D): This is a one-time purchase and does not require renewal, making it ideal for capital expenditure.

Open-source (Option A): Open-source software is usually free but may not meet specific licensing requirements.

Subscription (Option B): This typically involves recurring payments, which contradicts the non-renewing expense requirement.

Volume (Option C): Volume licenses are used for purchasing multiple licenses at a discount but may still involve subscription-based renewals.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 2.1: Explain licensing concepts for software.

The server has a CMOS battery failure and the time synchronization service is disabled on the servers. The CMOS battery is a small battery on the motherboard that powers the BIOS settings and keeps track of the date and time when the server is powered off. If the CMOS battery fails, the server will lose its configuration and display an incorrect date and time when it is powered on. This can cause access issues for users and applications that rely on accurate time stamps. The time synchronization service is a service that synchronizes the system clock with a reliable external time source, such as a network time protocol (NTP) server. If the time synchronization service is disabled on the servers, they will not be able to update their clocks automatically and may drift out of sync with each other and with the network. This can also cause access issues for users and applications that require consistent and accurate time across the network.

A rescan on the server’s RAID controller is a possible troubleshooting step to detect the existing RAID configurations on the connected storage arrays. A firmware upgrade may cause the RAID controller to lose the RAID metadata or settings, and a rescan may restore them. A rescan is preferable to restoring the default RAID configuration, as the latter may erase the existing data on the arrays. Power cycling the storage arrays or booting the OS into recovery mode may not help if the RAID controller does not recognize the RAID sets.

References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 7: Storage, page 287.

A loop is a programming construct used to repeat a block of code multiple times. In this case, if a function needs to run ten times, a loop (such as a for loop or while loop) would be the appropriate choice.

Loop (Answer A): This allows the function to be executed repeatedly without writing redundant code.

Variable (Option B): A variable is used to store data, but it doesn’t handle repetition.

Comparator (Option C): Comparators are used to compare values, not for repeating code.

Conditional (Option D): Conditionals (if, else) are used for decision-making, not repeating actions multiple times.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 1.1: Understand basic scripting and automation concepts.

In RAID 10 arrays, disk performance is crucial, especially if they are high-speed 15K RPM SAS HDDs, as each disk in the array is part of a mirrored pair that also stripes data with another pair. When replacing a disk, it's essential that the new disk matches the specifications of the others, especially in terms of rotational speed (RPM). If the replaced disk is slower, it can significantly reduce the Input/Output operations per second (IOPS) of the entire array. This is because all disks need to work in tandem, and the slowest disk can become a bottleneck. Thus, checking the RPM of the newly replaced disk is a sensible first step to ensure it matches the performance of the other disks in the array.

The server’s local storage is experiencing problems. Only two out of four drives are found, and an additional hard drive connects and disconnects randomly.

Likely Cause: The most probable cause is a faulty power supply (Option B). Here’s why:

When a power supply is failing or not providing sufficient power, it can lead to intermittent connectivity issues with drives.

Drives may not be recognized during boot or may disconnect randomly due to power fluctuations.

RAM, CPU, and cooling failures typically result in different symptoms (e.g., blue screens, system instability, or overheating), which do not match the described issue.

When clients on a different VLAN cannot receive DHCP addresses, it’s often because there is no DHCP helper address configured on the router or switch. A DHCP relay/helper address forwards DHCP requests from clients on the VLAN to the DHCP server, which may reside on a different network.

Confirming the network has a helper address (Answer C): This should be the first step to ensure that DHCP requests from the VLAN are correctly routed to the DHCP server.

Checking client NIC speed (Option A): While important, incorrect NIC speed wouldn't affect the ability to obtain an IP address from DHCP.

Checking NTP server (Option B): Time synchronization is unrelated to DHCP issues.

Authorizing the DHCP server (Option D): This is essential for DHCP operation, but since this is an existing DHCP cluster, the helper address is more likely the issue.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 1.2: Manage server network connections.

A crash cart is the best low-cost option to connect to any server while on site in a data center with multiple server racks. A crash cart is a mobile unit that contains a monitor, a keyboard, a mouse, and cables that can be plugged into any server for direct access and control. A crash cart can be used for troubleshooting, maintenance, or configuration of servers without requiring remote access or network connectivity. A crash cart is also easy to move around and store in a data center. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2.0: Hardware, Objective 2.4: Given a scenario involving server management issues (e.g., remote access), troubleshoot using appropriate tools.

Overprovisioning: Involves allocating more virtual resources (e.g., CPU, RAM, storage) to virtual machines than the total physical resources available on a hypervisor. The idea is for resources to be dynamically shared, assuming not all VMs will demand their maximum allocation simultaneously.

Direct Access: This usually refers to technologies like RDMA (Remote Direct Memory Access) that allow for very low-latency, direct access to the memory of another computer over a network.

Link Aggregation: The practice of combining multiple physical network links to create a single logical link with increased bandwidth.

Component Redundancy: Refers to having multiple hardware components (e.g., power supplies, hard drives) to provide fault tolerance.

Scalability: The ability of a system to adapt and handle increased workloads by adding resources.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Objectives (Exam codes SK0-004 or SK0-005): Review the sections on virtualization concepts.

Virtualization Technology Documentation: Refer to documentation for popular hypervisors like VMware vSphere, Microsoft Hyper-V, or open-source solutions.

RAID 5 offers both disk redundancy and maximum usable disk capacity by using block-level striping with parity. RAID 5 allows one drive to fail while still retaining data, and it uses only one disk’s worth of space for parity, maximizing the usable capacity.

RAID 5 (Answer C): Provides redundancy with only one disk's space used for parity, maximizing storage.

RAID 0 (Option A): Provides no redundancy; if one drive fails, all data is lost.

RAID 1 (Option B): Mirrors data, so redundancy is provided, but only half the capacity is usable.

RAID 10 (Option D): Combines RAID 1 and 0 for high performance and redundancy but requires half the disk space for mirroring.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 1.5: Explain RAID levels and their benefits.

Port 443 is used for HTTPS, which is a secure version of HTTP that encrypts the data between the web server and the client. Port 3389 is used for RDP, which is a protocol that allows remote desktop connections to a server. These ports should be allowed for a secure web server that can be administered via RDP.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 15

Common Ports Cheat Sheet: The Ultimate Ports & Protocols List2

Resource Monitor is a tool that allows administrators to monitor the system's CPU, memory, disk, and network usage in real-time, ensuring that maximum resources are being efficiently utilized.

Resource Monitor (Answer D): This tool provides real-time insights into resource utilization and can help ensure resources are not under- or over-utilized.

Overprovisioning (Option A): Refers to allocating more resources than physically available but doesn't directly monitor resource usage.

Scalability (Option B): Refers to the ability to increase or decrease resources based on demand.

Thin clients (Option C): Refer to lightweight computers that depend on servers for processing power, unrelated to resource utilization monitoring.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 2.4: Monitor server performance.

In Bash (a Unix/Linux shell scripting language), it is common to include the shebang (#!) followed by the path to the interpreter (e.g., #!/bin/bash) on the first line of the script. This tells the operating system which interpreter to use to execute the script.

Bash (Answer C): Bash scripts often start with a shebang line that specifies the path to the binary (#!/bin/bash).

Batch (Option A): Batch scripts (used in Windows) do not require a path to the interpreter on the first line.

Java (Option B): Java is a compiled language, not a scripting language, so this does not apply.

PowerShell (Option D): PowerShell scripts (.ps1 files) do not typically require specifying the interpreter path on the first line.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 1.1: Understand scripting basics and the use of interpreters.

Bash is a scripting language that is commonly used in Linux systems to automate tasks and manipulate text. Bash scripts can run commands, variables, functions, loops, and conditional statements. PowerShell is a scripting language that is mainly used in Windows systems, while batch command files are simple text files that contain a series of commands to be executed by the command-line interpreter. Visual Basic is a programming language that is used to create applications, not scripts. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0: Server Administration, Objective 4.2: Given a scenario, perform proper server maintenance techniques.

The AVC denial error message indicates that SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux) is preventing the MySQL update from installing. SELinux is a security module that enforces mandatory access control policies on Linux systems. To install the MySQL update, the technician should issue the setenforce 0 command, which temporarily disables SELinux enforcement until the next reboot. Downloading the update manually, creating a firewall rule, or issuing the yum -y update mysql command will not resolve the error. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0: Server Administration, Objective 4.3: Given a scenario, troubleshoot server issues using appropriate tools.

Load balancing is a method used to distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers. In this scenario, the administrator is tasked with ensuring that all four servers can serve the same website, which is a typical use case for load balancing.

Load balancing (Answer A): Distributes web traffic across multiple servers to ensure availability and reliability.

Direct access (Option B): Refers to client devices connecting directly to a network resource, unrelated to the described scenario.

Overprovisioning (Option C): Refers to allocating more resources than are currently needed, not relevant to load distribution.

Network teaming (Option D): Involves combining multiple network interfaces for redundancy or increased throughput but doesn't address server distribution.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 1.4: Explain networking concepts for server environments.

Network latency is the measure of delay in data transmission over a network. It can affect the quality of voice over IP (VoIP) calls by causing echo, jitter, or distortion. Network latency can be caused by various factors such as network congestion, distance, routing, or bandwidth. To monitor network latency, you can use tools such as ping, traceroute, or network analyzers.

References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Networking, page 237.

Port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), which is a secure and encrypted protocol for remote access to a server. Port 23 is used for Telnet, which is an insecure and unencrypted protocol for remote access. Port 990 is used for FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure), which is a secure and encrypted protocol for file transfer. The administrator should open port 22 and close port 23 to enable SSH and disable Telnet, as SSH is more secure and reliable than Telnet. The administrator does not need to open port 990, as FTPS is not required for making configuration changes123.

References = 1: Remote Desktop - Allow access to your PC from outside your network(https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-desktop-services/clients/remote-desktop-allow-outside-access) 2: Test remote network port connection in Windows 10 - Winaero(https://winaero.com/test-remote-network-port-connection-in-windows-10/) 3: Windows Command to check if a remote server port is opened?(https://superuser.com/questions/1035018/windows-command-to-check-if-a-remote-server-port-is-opened)

Link aggregation is the best option to implement on the new server to ensure the least amount of network downtime but a good amount of network speed. Link aggregation is a technique of combining multiple physical network interfaces into one logical interface to increase bandwidth, redundancy, and load balancing. Link aggregation can improve the performance and availability of the server by allowing it to use more than one network path for data transmission and failover in case of link failure. Link aggregation can be implemented using various protocols, such as IEEE 802.3ad (LACP), Cisco EtherChannel, or Linux bonding. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0: Networking, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, configure network settings for servers.

QSFP+ (Quad Small Form-factor Pluggable Plus) connectors are used in high-density, high-speed networking solutions such as 40 Gigabit Ethernet (40GbE) interfaces. When upgrading a server's network to 40Gbps, QSFP+ is the appropriate choice due to its capability to support such high-speed data transfer rates. 10 GigE, SFP, and SFP+ connectors are used for lower speed connections (10Gbps and below for SFP+ and 10 GigE, and even less for SFP), making them unsuitable for a 40Gbps network upgrade.

Government regulations often dictate the legal requirements for data storage, privacy, and security, which can greatly impact the selection of a cloud provider. Compliance with regulations like GDPR, HIPAA, or other local laws is critical when choosing a cloud provider to avoid legal repercussions.

Government regulations (Answer B): Cloud providers must comply with legal and regulatory requirements, making this a significant factor in provider selection.

Industry standards (Option A): While important, standards can be more flexible and are often not legally binding.

Company policy (Option C): Internal policies are important but usually stem from the need to comply with regulations.

Organizational procedures (Option D): Procedures help guide operations but don’t typically dictate the choice of cloud providers.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 1.6: Explain the importance of cloud-based concepts and services.

The step that the server administrator should perform before resolving the issue is to determine the probable causes. This step is part of the troubleshooting process that follows a logical and systematic approach to identify and solve problems with servers and applications. The troubleshooting process consists of several steps, such as:

Identify the problem: Gather information from various sources, such as users, logs, or alerts, to understand the symptoms and scope of the problem.

Establish a theory of probable cause: Analyze the information and formulate one or more possible causes of the problem based on evidence or experience.

Test the theory to determine cause: Perform tests or experiments to verify or eliminate each possible cause until the root cause is found.

Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution: Design and execute a plan to fix the problem using appropriate tools and techniques.

Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures: Confirm that the problem is resolved and that no other issues arise as a result of the solution. Implement preventive measures to avoid recurrence of the problem or improve performance.

Document findings, actions, and outcomes: Record the details of the problem, its cause, its solution, and its outcome for future reference or knowledge sharing. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 6.0: Troubleshooting, Objective 6.1: Given a scenario involving server hardware issues (e.g., power supply failure), troubleshoot using appropriate tools.

A warranty is a type of asset management documentation that is commonly used as a reference when processing the replacement of a faulty server component. A warranty is a guarantee from the manufacturer or vendor that covers the repair or replacement of defective parts within a specified period of time. A purchase order, a license, or a baseline document are not directly related to the replacement of a faulty server component. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 1.0: Server Architecture, Objective 1.4: Explain asset management and documentation processes.

The first step when addressing an urgent issue like a database disconnection should be to gather information to understand what actions caused the problem. Collecting all logs and reviewing the technician's actions (Answer D) will help identify what went wrong and guide appropriate remediation. Restoring access quickly is the priority, and without reviewing logs, it would be hard to identify the root cause or prevent further damage.

Reverting patches (Option A): Reverting patches might cause more issues if the problem isn't directly related to a recent update.

Reproducing the issue (Option B): Reproduction is useful in a controlled environment but not practical as an immediate first step in production.

Root cause analysis (Option C): This is necessary but should come after restoring access.

Performing a quick backup (Option E): While backups are crucial, this step might not help resolve the current access problem and can delay troubleshooting.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic relates to SK0-005 Objective 3.4: Explain troubleshooting theory and methodologies.

RAID 0 is a configuration that splits data evenly across two or more disks without parity or mirroring. This improves performance but offers no fault tolerance. If a drive in a RAID 0 array fails, the data on the array becomes inaccessible and the server will immediately crash. The other options are not applicable to RAID 0. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 3.0: Storage, Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, configure RAID using best practices.

A full backup captures all data, regardless of whether it has changed since the last backup. This ensures that a complete copy of the data is made every time.

Full (Answer E): A full backup includes every file in the system, regardless of changes.

Incremental (Option A): Backs up only files that have changed since the last backup (full or incremental).

Differential (Option B): Backs up all files changed since the last full backup.

Archive (Option C): Typically refers to long-term storage of data, not a type of backup process.

Snapshot (Option D): Captures the system's state at a given point in time, often used in virtual environments.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 4.1: Summarize backup methods.

Before decommissioning and wiping a file server, it's crucial to verify the asset management documentation. This documentation provides detailed records of the server's lifecycle, including procurement, usage, maintenance, and decommissioning information. Ensuring that asset management documentation is up-to-date and accurate is essential before proceeding with the server's decommissioning to maintain proper inventory control, comply with regulatory and organizational policies, and facilitate any potential audits. While the media destruction method, recycling policy, and document retention policy are important considerations in the decommissioning process, verifying asset management documentation is the first step to ensure the server is correctly identified and accounted for in the organization's asset registry.

The administrator should only allow secure traffic and DNS inquiries on the server, which means that only ports 22, 53, and 443 should be open. Port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), which is a protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution over a network connection using a command-line interface (CLI). Port 53 is used for DNS (Domain Name System), which is a service that translates domain names into IP addresses and vice versa. Port 443 is used for HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), which is a secure version of HTTP that encrypts the data exchanged between a web browser and a web server.

The most likely cause of the issue is that the server has not been joined to the domain. A domain is a logical group of computers and devices that share a common directory service and security policy. A domain controller is a server that manages the domain and authenticates users and computers that want to access domain resources. To log on with domain credentials, a server must be joined to the domain and registered in the directory service. If a server has not been joined to the domain, it will not be recognized or authorized by the domain controller.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Lesson 4.3, Objective 4.3

The administrator should use 172.16.19.241 as an IP address to be in compliance with RFC 1918 standard. RFC 1918 defines three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for private internets, meaning they are not globally routable on the public Internet and can be used within an enterprise without any risk of conflict or overlap with other networks. These ranges are:

10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 (10/8 prefix) 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 (172.16/12 prefix) 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 (192.168/16 prefix)

Out of these ranges, only 172.16.19.241 falls within one of them (172.16/12 prefix). The other options are either public IP addresses that belong to other organizations or networks (11.251.196.241, 171.245.198.241) or invalid IP addresses that do not conform to any standard (193.168.145.241).

A public cloud model will most likely meet the need of eliminating all company-owned data centers. A public cloud is a type of cloud computing service that is provided by a third-party vendor over the internet. A public cloud offers scalability, flexibility, and cost-effectiveness for hosting servers and applications, as the customers only pay for the resources they use and do not have to maintain their own infrastructure. A public cloud can also provide high availability, security, and performance for the servers and applications, as the vendor manages the underlying hardware and software. A public cloud can support various types of services, such as software as a service (SaaS), platform as a service (PaaS), or infrastructure as a service (IaaS). References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 1.0: Server Administration, Objective 1.2: Given a scenario, compare and contrast server roles and requirements for each.

The power supply and the hard drive are two components that can most likely be swapped out while the server is still running, if they support hot swapping or hot plugging. Hot swapping or hot plugging means that the device can be added or removed without shutting down the system. The operating system automatically recognizes the changes that have been made. This feature is useful for minimizing downtime and improving availability. The CPU, the GPU, the cache, and the RAM are not hot swappable and require the system to be powered off before replacing them. References: https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/what-is-hot-swapping/ https://www.howtogeek.com/268249/what-is-hot-swapping-and-what-devices-support-it/

Scenario: Four disks, requiring redundancy and maximum usable capacity.

RAID Level: RAID 10 (Option D) is the best choice:

RAID 10 combines mirroring (redundancy) and striping (performance).

RAID 0 lacks redundancy, RAID 1 provides less capacity, and RAID 5 requires more

Cloud IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is a service model that allows users to rent virtualized computing resources over the internet, such as servers, storage, network, and software. Cloud IaaS can provide several benefits for disaster recovery and failover scenarios, such as:

Lower cost: Cloud IaaS can reduce the capital and operational expenses of building and maintaining a physical disaster recovery site, as users only pay for the resources they use on demand12.

Scalability: Cloud IaaS can offer flexible and elastic scalability of resources, as users can easily provision or deprovision resources according to their needs and workload12.

Availability: Cloud IaaS can ensure high availability and reliability of the application, as users can leverage the cloud provider’s redundant and geographically distributed infrastructure12.

Simplicity: Cloud IaaS can simplify the failover process, as users can use the cloud provider’s tools and services to automate and orchestrate the failover operations12.

Therefore, building a cloud IaaS and performing a failover of the application would be the most cost-effective solution for the company, as it would allow them to simulate a failover of a critical application on production configurations and IP address schemes without investing in a physical disaster recovery site.

The best way to ensure that there is a more direct relationship between the number of users using the server and the amount of space that might be used is to implement disk quotas. Disk quotas are a feature that allows a server administrator to limit the amount of disk space that each user or group can use on a file server. Disk quotas can help manage storage utilization, prevent disk space exhaustion, and enforce fair usage policies. Disk quotas can also provide reports and alerts on disk space usage and quota status.

Reflective glass is an architectural reinforcement that attempts to conceal the interior of an organization by reflecting light and preventing outsiders from seeing inside. Reflective glass can also reduce heat and glare, and enhance the aesthetic appearance of a building. Reflective glass is often used in high-security facilities, such as data centers, government buildings, or corporate headquarters12

1: Server Architecture for CompTIA Server+ (SK0-004) | Pluralsight 2: Introducing the CompTIA Infrastructure Career Pathway

The IP address configuration that the technician should assign to the new server so the members of the accounting group can access the server is 172.16.25.90/24 for the IP address and 172.16.25.254 for the default gateway. This configuration matches the VLAN identified in the image, which has a network address of 172.16.25.0/24 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. The IP address of the server must be within the same network range as the VLAN, which is from 172.16.25.1 to 172.16.25.254, excluding the network and broadcast addresses (172.16.25.0 and 172.16.25.255). The default gateway of the server must be the same as the VLAN, which is 172.16.25.254, to allow communication with other networks or devices outside the VLAN. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0: Networking, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, configure network settings for servers.

This is the most likely reason why the fans in that server are operating at full speed while the ambient temperature in the room is normal and the other servers in the rack are not experiencing this behavior. A fan failure is a situation where one or more fans in a server stop working or malfunction due to wear and tear, dust, or other factors. This can cause overheating and performance issues on the server. To prevent this, most servers have a fan redundancy feature that allows the other fans to increase their speed and airflow to compensate for the failed fan and maintain a safe temperature level. The server is not likely to be in the process of shutting down, as this would not cause the fans to run at high speeds. An incorrect fan size is not likely to be inserted into the server, as most fans are standardized and compatible with the server chassis and motherboard. The server is not likely to be utilizing more memory than the other servers, as this would not cause a significant increase in temperature or fan speed. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/303282/how-to-manage-your-pcs-fans-for-optimal-airflow-and-cooling/ https://www.howtogeek.com/174288/how-to-tell-if-your-computer-is-overheating-and-what-to-do-about-it/

An insider threat is a type of risk that can be mitigated by implementing split encryption keys for sensitive files. An insider threat is a malicious actor who has authorized access to an organization’s system or data and uses it for unauthorized or harmful purposes. An insider threat can cause data breaches, sabotage, fraud, theft, espionage, or other damages to the organization. Split encryption keys are a method of encrypting data using multiple keys that are stored separately and require collaboration to decrypt. Split encryption keys can prevent an insider threat from accessing or compromising sensitive data without being detected by another authorized party who holds another key. Hardware failure is a type of risk that involves physical damage or malfunction of hardware components such as hard drives, memory modules, power supplies, or fans. Hardware failure can cause data loss, system downtime, performance issues, or other problems for the organization. Hardware failure cannot be mitigated by split encryption keys, but by backup, redundancy, monitoring, and maintenance measures.

 Explanation: To make a new drive available on a server, the administrator needs to partition the drive first. Partitioning is a process that divides the drive into one or more logical sections that can be formatted and assigned drive letters or mount points. Partitioning can be done using tools such as Disk Management on Windows or fdisk on Linux. Creating a new disk quota would not help, as disk quotas are used to limit the amount of disk space that users or groups can use on a partition. Configuring the drive as dynamic would not help either, as dynamic disks are used to create volumes that span multiple disks or use RAID features. Setting the compression would not help, as compression is used to reduce the size of files on a partition. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/school/using-windows-admin-tools-like-a-pro/lesson2/ https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/17001/how-to-format-a-usb-drive-in-ubuntu-using-gparted/

The technician should boot from the media to install the firmware on the server. Firmware is a type of software that controls the low-level functions of hardware devices, such as BIOS (Basic Input/Output System), RAID controllers, network cards, etc. Firmware updates are often provided by hardware manufacturers to fix bugs, improve performance, or add new features to their devices. To install firmware updates on a server, the technician needs to boot from a media device (such as a CD-ROM, DVD-ROM, USB flash drive, etc.) that contains the firmware files and installation program. The technician cannot install firmware updates from within the operating system because firmware updates often require restarting or resetting the hardware devices.

The RAID level that provides the highest possible capacity for a storage array is RAID 0. RAID 0 is a type of RAID level that provides performance enhancement by using striping. Striping means dividing data into blocks and distributing them across multiple disks to increase speed and capacity. RAID 0 does not provide any fault tolerance or redundancy, as it does not use any parity or mirroring techniques. RAID 0 uses all of the available disk space for data storage, without losing any space for overhead. Therefore, RAID 0 provides the highest possible capacity for a storage array, but also has the highest risk of data loss.

The server administrator needs to adhere to the Service Level Agreement (SLA) when responding to tickets within a certain amount of time. An SLA is a contract between a service provider and a customer that defines the quality, availability, and responsibilities of the service. An SLA may specify the response time for tickets, as well as other metrics such as uptime, performance, security, and backup frequency. Reference: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/service-level-agreements

The method that would help the administrator accomplish the task of creating new VMs in the shortest amount of time and meet the system requirements is template. A template is a preconfigured virtual machine image that contains an operating system, applications, settings, and other components. A template can be used to create multiple identical or customized VMs quickly and easily, without having to install and configure each VM from scratch. A template can save time and ensure consistency across VMs.

The company should also implement MFA on all the servers with encrypted data as a data loss prevention method. MFA stands for multi-factor authentication, which is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring two or more pieces of evidence, such as something they know (e.g., a password), something they have (e.g., a token), or something they are (e.g., a fingerprint). MFA adds an extra layer of security to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data, even if the user’s password is compromised or stolen. Encrypting the hard drives on the servers protects the data from being read or copied if the drives are physically removed or stolen, but it does not prevent unauthorized access to the data if the user’s credentials are valid.

The reason why the Linux server is not communicating on a network is that it is configured to use DHCP on a network that does not have a DHCP server. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a protocol that allows a client device to obtain an IP address and other network configuration parameters from a DHCP server automatically. However, if there is no DHCP server on the network, the client device will not be able to obtain a valid IP address and will assign itself a link-local address instead. A link-local address is an IP address that is only valid within a local network segment and cannot be used for communication outside of it. A link-local address has a prefix of 169.254/16 in IPv4 or fe80::/10 in IPv6. In this case, the Linux server has assigned itself a link-local address of 127.0.0.1, which is also known as the loopback address. The loopback address is used for testing and troubleshooting purposes and refers to the device itself. It cannot be used for communication with other devices on the network.

The technician should install the heaviest server at the bottom of the rack to load the rack properly. Installing the heaviest server at the bottom of the rack helps to balance the weight distribution and prevent the rack from tipping over or collapsing. Installing the heaviest server at the bottom of the rack also makes it easier to access and service the server without lifting or moving it. Installing the heaviest server at any other position in the rack could create instability and safety hazards.

If the server is not reachable by name but can be accessed by IP address, it means that there is a problem with name resolution. The hosts file and the DNS server are both responsible for mapping hostnames to IP addresses. Therefore, the server administrator should check these two files for any errors or inconsistencies that might prevent the server from being resolved by name. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/662249/how-to-edit-the-hosts-file-on-linux/ https://www.howtogeek.com/164981/how-to-use-nslookup-to-check-domain-name-information-in-microsoft-windows/

The best way to protect an organization against social engineering is to provide recurring training and support. Social engineering is a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into divulging confidential information or performing malicious actions. Social engineering can take various forms, such as phishing emails, phone calls, impersonation, baiting, or quid pro quo. The best defense against social engineering is to educate and empower the employees to recognize and avoid common social engineering techniques and report any suspicious activities or incidents. Recurring training and support can help raise awareness and reinforce best practices among the employees.

The administrator should use the command chmod 754 /home/Ann to resolve the issue without granting unnecessary permissions. The chmod command is used to change the permissions of files and directories on a Linux server. The permissions are represented by three numbers, each ranging from 0 to 7, that correspond to the read ®, write (w), and execute (x) permissions for the owner, group, and others respectively. The numbers are calculated by adding up the values of each permission: r = 4, w = 2, x = 1. For example, 7 means rwx (4 + 2 + 1), 6 means rw- (4 + 2), 5 means r-x (4 + 1), etc. In this case, Ann’s home directory has the permissions dr-xr-xr–, which means that only the owner (d) can read ® and execute (x) the directory, and the group and others can only read ® and execute (x) but not write (w) to it. This prevents Ann from saving files to her home directory. To fix this issue, the administrator should grant write permission to the owner by using chmod 754 /home/Ann, which means that the owner can read ®, write (w), and execute (x) the directory, the group can read ® and execute (x) but not write (w) to it, and others can only read ® but not write (w) or execute (x) it. This way, Ann can save files to her home directory without giving unnecessary permissions to others.

A mantrap is a security device that consists of a small space with two sets of interlocking doors, such that the first set of doors must close before the second one opens. A mantrap can be used to control access to a data center by verifying the identity and weight of the person entering. A bollard is a sturdy post that prevents vehicles from entering a restricted area. Geofencing is a technology that uses GPS or RFID to create a virtual boundary around a location and trigger an action when a device crosses it. RFID is a technology that uses radio waves to identify and track objects or people. References:

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/16293/mantrap

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1437/bollard

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/23961/geofencing

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/506/radio-frequency-identification-rfid

Teaming is a technique that can be configured on a server for network redundancy. Teaming involves combining two or more network adapters into a single logical unit that acts as one network interface. This way, if one network adapter fails, another one can take over without disrupting network connectivity. Teaming can also improve network performance by load balancing traffic across multiple network adapters. Clustering is a technique that involves grouping two or more servers together to act as one system for high availability and fault tolerance. Virtualizing is a technique that involves creating multiple virtual machines on a single physical server to optimize resource utilization and flexibility. Cloning is a technique that involves creating an exact copy of a server’s configuration and data for backup or migration purposes. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/nic-teaming/nic-teaming https://www.techopedia.com/definition/19588/clustering https://www.techopedia.com/definition/4790/virtualization https://www.techopedia.com/definition/4776/cloning

An IDRAC (Integrated Dell Remote Access Controller) is a tool that can be used to command a remote shutdown of a physical Linux server. An IDRAC is a hardware device that provides out-of-band management for Dell servers. It allows the technician to access the server’s console, power cycle, reboot, or shut down the server remotely using a web interface or a command-line interface. An IDRAC does not depend on the operating system or network connectivity of the server. A virtual serial console is a tool that can be used to access a remote virtual machine’s console using a serial port connection. A KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switch is a device that allows the technician to switch between different computer sources using the same keyboard, monitor, and mouse. A crash cart is a mobile unit that contains a keyboard, monitor, mouse, and other tools that can be connected to a physical server for troubleshooting purposes. References: https://www.dell.com/support/kbdoc/en-us/000131486/understanding-the-idrac https://www.howtogeek.com/799968/what-is-a-kvm-switch/ https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1032/business-impact-analysis-bia

The connection type that the server administrator is using to access the server remotely is out-of-band management. Out-of-band management is a method of accessing and controlling a server through a dedicated network interface or port that is separate from the regular data network. Out-of-band management allows administrators to perform tasks such as rebooting, configuring, troubleshooting, or updating a server even if the server is offline or unresponsive through the regular network. Out-of-band management can use protocols such as IPMI, iLO, DRAC, or BMC. Reference: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/out-of-band-management

The most efficient subnet address for a network that will have no more than 30 available IP addresses is 255.255.255.224. This subnet mask corresponds to a /27 prefix length, which means that 27 bits are used for the network portion and 5 bits are used for the host portion of an IP address. With 5 bits for hosts, there are 2^5 - 2 = 30 possible host addresses per subnet, which meets the requirement. The other options are either too large or too small for the network size. Reference: https://www.ibm.com/c loud/learn/subnet-mask

The DR testing scenario that is described as verbally walking through each step of the DR plan in the context of a meeting is tabletop. A tabletop test is a type of disaster recovery (DR) test that involves discussing and reviewing the DR plan with key stakeholders and participants in a simulated scenario. A tabletop test does not involve any actual execution of the DR plan or any disruption of the normal operations. A tabletop test can help identify gaps, issues, or inconsistencies in the DR plan and improve communication and coordination among the DR team members.

 The technician should configure RAID 6 for this drive array to meet the server specifications. RAID 6 is a type of RAID level that provides fault tolerance and performance enhancement by using striping and dual parity. Striping means dividing data into blocks and distributing them across multiple disks to increase speed and capacity. Parity means calculating and storing extra information that can be used to reconstruct data in case of disk failure. RAID 6 uses two sets of parity information for each stripe, which are stored on different disks. This way, RAID 6 can handle up to two disk failures without losing any data or functionality. RAID 6 also allows for the least amount of drive space lost to RAID overhead compared to other RAID levels that can handle two disk failures, such as RAID 1+0 or RAID 0+1.

The component that allows for a connection of devices to both sides inside of a blade enclosure is midplane. A midplane is a board or panel that connects two sets of connectors or devices in parallel with each other. A midplane is typically used in blade enclosures or chassis to provide power and data connections between blade servers on one side and power supplies, cooling fans, switches, or management modules on the other side. A midplane can also act as a backplane by providing bus signals or communication channels between devices.

The administrator should check disk space in the /var directory first when using YUM to update applications on a server. YUM stands for Yellowdog Updater Modified, which is a software package manager for Linux systems that use RPM (Red Hat Package Manager) packages. YUM downloads and installs packages from online repositories and resolves dependencies automatically. YUM stores its cache files in the /var/cache/yum directory by default. These cache files include metadata and package data for each repository that YUM uses. If there is not enough disk space in the /var directory, YUM may fail to update applications and generate error messages.

These are two methods that can prevent a user from installing an OS on a server if properly configured. A bootloader password is a password that protects the bootloader from unauthorized access or modification. The bootloader is a program that loads the operating system into memory when the system boots up. If a user does not know the bootloader password, they cannot change the boot order or boot from another device such as a CD-ROM or USB drive that contains an OS installation media. A BIOS/UEFI password is a password that protects the BIOS (Basic Input Output System) or UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) from unauthorized access or modification. The BIOS or UEFI is a firmware that initializes and configures the hardware components of the system before loading

The next thing that the technician should do, given the disk is hot swappable, is to replace the disk. A hot swappable disk is a disk that can be removed and replaced without shutting down the system or affecting its operation. A hot swappable disk is typically used in a storage array that has RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) configuration that provides fault tolerance and redundancy. If a disk fails in a RAID array, it can be replaced by a new disk without interrupting the service or losing any data. The new disk will automatically rebuild itself using the data from the other disks in the array.

The /etc/fstab file contains the information about the file systems that are mounted automatically at boot time or on demand. The entry nfsserver:/home /home nfs defaults 0 0 indicates that the /home directory on the local server is mounted from the /home directory on a remote server called nfsserver using the NFS protocol. However, the df -h /home command shows that the /home directory is actually mounted from a local partition /dev/sda2, which may not contain the user’s files. This means that the NFS mount failed or was overridden by another mount. To resolve the issue, the technician should attempt to unmount the local partition using umount nfsserver:/home, which will detach the /home directory from /dev/sda2. Then, the technician should try to mount the NFS share again using mount /home, which will attach the /home directory to nfsserver:/home according to the /etc/fstab entry12. Creating a new directory (A) or removing an existing one © would not help, as they would not affect the mount point. Mounting /home (D) without unmounting it first would not work, as it would result in an error that the mount point is busy3. References: 1 https://askubuntu.com/questions/37487 0/home-directory-not-being-created 2 https://www.techrepublic.com/article/how-to-properly-automount-a-drive-in-ubuntu-linux/  3 https://serverfault.com/questions/587855/cannot-find-home-directory-on-linux-server

The cluster feature that will allow Ann to complete her task is failback. A cluster is a group of servers that work together to provide high availability, scalability, and load balancing for applications or services. A cluster can have different nodes or members that have different roles or states. An active node is a node that is currently running an application or service and serving requests from clients. A passive node is a node that is on standby and ready to take over if the active node fails. A failover is a process of switching from a failed or unavailable node to another node in a cluster. A failback is a process of switching back from a failover node to the original node after it becomes available again. Failback can be automatic or manual depending on the cluster configuration.

Faulty memory and incorrectly seated memory are likely causes of the random BSOD conditions on the server. Memory is one of the most common hardware components that can cause BSOD (Blue Screen of Death) errors on Windows systems. BSOD errors occur when the system encounters a fatal error that prevents it from continuing to operate normally. Memory errors can be caused by faulty or incompatible memory modules that have physical defects or manufacturing flaws. Memory errors can also be caused by incorrectly seated memory modules that are not properly inserted or locked into the memory slots on the motherboard. This can result in loose or poor connections between the memory modules and the motherboard.

The backplane is a circuit board that connects multiple hard drives to a RAID controller and provides power and data transfer between them. If the backplane has failed, it may cause all the hard drives to be offline and prevent the server from booting into the OS. The fact that replacing one of the drives with a known-good drive did not work, and that taking a drive out of the server and placing it in a spare server made it functional, suggests that the problem is not with the drives themselves but with the backplane. A corrupt kernel (A) would not affect the status of the hard drives, as it is a software component of the OS. Resource misallocation (B) would not cause all the hard drives to be offline, as it is a configuration issue that affects how resources are assigned to processes or applications. Reseating the drives (D) would not help, as it would not fix a faulty backplane. References: https://www.dell.com/support/kbdoc/en-us/000130114/how-to-troubleshoot-a-faulty-backplane

Maintenance and support is a type of license that would most likely include vendor assistance. Maintenance and support is a contract that defines the level and scope of service and assistance that a vendor provides to a customer for using their software product. Maintenance and support may include technical support, bug fixes, patches, updates, upgrades, documentation, training, and other benefits. Maintenance and support licenses usually have an annual fee based on the number of users or devices covered by the contract. Open-source is a type of license that allows free access to the source code and modification and distribution of the software product, but does not guarantee vendor assistance. Version compatibility is not a type of license, but a feature that ensures software products can work with different versions of operating systems or other software products. Subscription is a type of license that allows access to software products for a limited period of time based on recurring payments, but does not necessarily include vendor assistance. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1440/software-licensing https://www.techopedia.com/definitio n/1032/business-impact-analysis-bia

If a server has three hard drives configured in a RAID 5 array, it means that the data is striped across all three drives with parity information. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without losing data, but not two or more. If there are multiple failed hard drives, the RAID 5 array will become corrupted and the OS will not load. The other options are not likely to cause the issue, as the server passes POST, the CPU and RAM are seated correctly, the BIOS settings are correct, and the OS loads from a bootable USB drive. RAID 5 does not require four drives, it can work with three or more. References: https://www.technewstoday.com/what-is-a-raid-5/

The best solution to investigate the failure of a server in a remote datacenter is out-of-band management. Out-of-band management is a method of accessing and controlling a server or a device using a dedicated channel that is separate from its normal network connection. Out-of-band management can use various technologies, such as serial ports, modems, KVM switches, or dedicated management cards or interfaces. Out-of-band management can provide remote access to servers or devices even when they are powered off, unresponsive, or disconnected from the network. Out-of-band management can enable troubleshooting, configuration, maintenance, or recovery tasks without requiring physical presence at the server location.

The backup type that only records changes to the data blocks on a virtual machine is snapshot. A snapshot is a point-in-time copy of a virtual machine (VM) that captures the state and data of the VM at a specific moment. A snapshot can be created instantly and with minimal overhead, as it only stores the changes made to the VM after the snapshot was taken. A snapshot can be used to restore the VM to its previous state in case of data loss or corruption.

This is the command that would best resolve the error message “Bash ./startup.sh: Permission denied” when trying to execute a script on Linux. Chmod is a command that changes the permissions of files or directories on Linux. +x is an option that adds the execute permission to the file or directory for the owner, group, and others. startup.sh is the name of the script file that needs to be executed. By running chmod +x startup.sh, the technician grants execute permission to the script file and allows it to be run by any user. Chmod +w startup.sh would add write permission to the file, but not execute permission. Chmod 444 startup.sh would set read-only permission for all users, but not execute permission. Chmod 466 startup.sh would set read and write permission for the owner and write-only permission for group and others, but not execute permission. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/437958/how-to-use-the-chmod-command-on-linux

To ensure the partition is available to the OS, the technician must verify that the volume is formatted as GPT. GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a partitioning scheme that defines how data is organized on a hard disk drive (HDD) or a solid state drive (SSD). GPT uses globally unique identifiers (GUIDs) to identify partitions and supports up to 128 primary partitions per disk. GPT also supports disks larger than 2 TB and has a backup copy of the partition table at the end of the disk for data recovery. GPT is required for installing Windows on UEFI-based PCs, which offer faster boot time and better security than legacy BIOS-based PCs.

A purple screen with white letters on an ESX server indicates a kernel panic, which is a fatal error that causes the system to crash and stop functioning3. The first troubleshooting step that an administrator should perform is to review the log files, which may contain information about the cause of the error, such as hardware failures, software bugs, or configuration issues4. Checking the power supplies (A) may not be relevant, as the system is still displaying a screen. Reinstalling the ESX server © or reseating the processors (D) are drastic measures that may result in data loss or further damage, and should only be attempted after ruling out other possible causes. References: 3 https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/1014508  4 https://www.altaro.com/vmware/vmware-esxi-purple-screen-death/

The server administrator should use cable management to prevent network connectivity loss when pulling a server from the rack during maintenance. Cable management is a practice of organizing and securing the cables that connect various devices and components in a system. Cable management can help improve airflow, reduce clutter, prevent tangling, and avoid accidental disconnection or damage of cables. Cable management can be done using various tools and techniques, such as cable ties, cable trays, cable labels, cable organizers, or cable ducts.

The first action that the administrator should take before swapping out the GPU card inside a server is to shut down the server. This is to ensure that the server is not running any processes that might be using the GPU card, and to prevent any damage to the hardware or data loss due to sudden power loss. Shutting down the server also reduces the risk of electrostatic discharge (ESD) that might harm the components. Reference: https://pcgearhead.com/installing-a-new-gpu/

The best course of action for the company is to upgrade the application package to fix the known vulnerability. A vulnerability is a weakness or flaw in an application that can be exploited by an attacker to compromise the security or functionality of the system. Upgrading the application package means installing a newer version of the application that has patched or resolved the vulnerability. This way, the company can prevent potential attacks that may exploit the vulnerability and cause damage or loss.

The domain search variable is used to specify a list of domains that are appended to a hostname when resolving it. If the servername is not fully qualified, the resolver will try each domain in the list until it finds a match or fails. By configuring the domain search variable, the technician can avoid typing the full domain name every time they want to ping a server. Verified References: [How to configure DNS suffixes on Linux systems]

The correct answer is D. A virtual switch.

A virtual switch is a software-based network device that connects the virtual machines (VMs) in a virtual environment and allows them to communicate with each other and with the physical network. A virtual switch can also create and manage virtual LANs (VLANs), which are logical segments of a network that separate the traffic of different VMs or groups of VMs. A VLAN needs a DHCP server to assign IP addresses to the VMs that belong to it. A virtual switch can act as a DHCP relay agent and forward the DHCP requests from the VMs to the DHCP server on the physical network. This way, the VMs can receive correct IP addresses for their VLANs123

A virtual router is a software-based network device that routes packets between different networks or subnets. A virtual router can also create and manage VLANs, but it is not necessary for a VM to receive a correct IP address. A virtual router can be used to provide additional security, redundancy, or load balancing for the VMs12

A host NIC is a physical network interface card that connects the host machine to the physical network. A host NIC can also support VLAN tagging, which allows the host machine to communicate with different VLANs on the network. However, a host NIC alone cannot ensure that a VM receives a correct IP address for its VLAN. The host NIC needs to be connected to a virtual switch that can relay the DHCP requests from the VMs to the DHCP server12

A VPN is a virtual private network that creates a secure tunnel between two or more devices over the internet. A VPN can be used to encrypt and protect the data traffic of the VMs, but it is not related to the configuration of VLANs or IP addresses. A VPN does not affect how a VM receives a correct IP address for its VLAN14

A vNIC is a virtual network interface card that connects a VM to a virtual switch or a virtual router. A vNIC can also support VLAN tagging, which allows the VM to communicate with different VLANs on the network. However, a vNIC alone cannot ensure that a VM receives a correct IP address for its VLAN. The vNIC needs to be connected to a virtual switch or a virtual router that can relay the DHCP requests from the VMs to the DHCP server12

This is the best command to find out which commands can be used by a user with sudo privileges because it lists the allowed and forbidden commands for a given user or role. The -l option stands for list, and the -U option specifies the user name. The output of this command will show what commands can be executed with sudo by that user on that server. References: https://www.sudo.ws/man/1.8.13/sudo.man.html

This is the best definition of overprovisioning in a virtual server environment because it means allocating more CPU, memory, disk, or network resources to the virtual machines than what is actually available on the physical host. This can lead to performance issues and resource contention. References: https://www.hpe.com/us/en/insights/articles/10-virtualization-mistakes-everyone-makes-1808.html

A method of application hardening is installing the latest patches. Application hardening is a process of reducing the attack surface and vulnerabilities of an application by applying security measures and best practices. Installing the latest patches is one way to harden an application, as patches are updates that fix bugs, errors, or security issues in an application. By installing the latest patches, an application can be protected from known exploits or threats.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Lesson 3.5, Objective 3.5

RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a metric that measures how much downtime an organization can tolerate during an unplanned outage before it affects its business continuity and reputation. RTO is usually expressed in hours or minutes and is determined by the criticality of the business processes and the impact of the outage on the revenue, customers, and stakeholders. RTO helps to define the recovery strategy and the resources needed to restore the normal operations as quickly as possible. Verified References: [RTO vs RPO]

The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is a firmware that controls the initialization and booting of a server. It also provides settings for the CPU, such as speed, voltage, and temperature. Updating the BIOS can improve the performance and compatibility of the CPU and other hardware components. Verified References: [BIOS], [CPU]