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156-215.80 Exam Dumps - Check Point Certified Security Administrator R80

Question # 4

Fill in the blanks: The _________ collects logs and sends them to the _________ .

A.

Log server; security management server

B.

Log server; Security Gateway

C.

Security management server; Security Gateway

D.

Security Gateways; log server

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Question # 5

The Firewall kernel is replicated multiple times, therefore:

A.

The Firewall kernel only touches the packet if the connection is accelerated

B.

The Firewall can run different policies per core

C.

The Firewall kernel is replicated only with new connections and deletes itself once the connection times out

D.

The Firewall can run the same policy on all cores

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Question # 6

Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.

A.

R80 Management API-

B.

Identity Awareness Web Services API

C.

Open REST API

D.

OPSEC SDK

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Question # 7

You have two rules, ten users, and two user groups in a Security Policy. You create database version 1 for this configuration. You then delete two existing users and add a new user group. You modify one rule and add two new rules to the Rule Base. You save the Security Policy and create database version 2. After a while, you decide to roll back to version 1 to use the Rule Base, but you want to keep your user database. How can you do this?

A.

Run fwm dbexport -1 filename. Restore the database. Then, run fwm dbimport -1 filename to import the users.

B.

Run fwm_dbexport to export the user database. Select restore the entire database in the Database Revision screen. Then, run fwm_dbimport.

C.

Restore the entire database, except the user database, and then create the new user and user group.

D.

Restore the entire database, except the user database.

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Question # 8

In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?

A.

SSL VPN is using HTTPS in addition to IKE, whereas IPSec VPN is clientless

B.

SSL VPN adds an extra VPN header to the packet, IPSec VPN does not

C.

IPSec VPN does not support two factor authentication, SSL VPN does support this

D.

IPSec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter, SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only

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Question # 9

Which set of objects have an Authentication tab?

A.

Templates, Users

B.

Users, Networks

C.

Users, User Group

D.

Networks, Hosts

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Question # 10

Which the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?

A.

Dynamic ID

B.

RADIUS

C.

Username and Password

D.

Certificate

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Question # 11

You find that Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you have created an HTTP rule via User Authentication. Choose the BEST reason why.

A.

You checked the cache password on desktop option in Global Properties.

B.

Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.

C.

You have forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.

D.

Users must use the SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.

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Question # 12

Fill in the blank: Gaia can be configured using the _______ or ______ .

A.

Gaia; command line interface

B.

WebUI; Gaia Interface

C.

Command line interface; WebUI

D.

Gaia Interface; GaiaUI

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Question # 13

Match the following commands to their correct function. Each command has one function only listed.

A.

C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5

B.

C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4

C.

C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5

D.

C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F5

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Question # 14

When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R77?

A.

User Name, Management Server IP, certificate fingerprint file

B.

User Name, Password, Management Server IP

C.

Password, Management Server IP

D.

Password, Management Server IP, LDAP Server IP

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Question # 15

You want to establish a VPN, using certificates. Your VPN will exchange certificates with an external partner. Which of the following activities sh you do first?

A.

Create a new logical-server object to represent your partner's CA

B.

Exchange exported CA keys and use them to create a new server object to represent your partner's Certificate Authority (CA)

C.

Manually import your partner's Certificate Revocation List.

D.

Manually import your partner's Access Control List.

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Question # 16

Look at the screenshot below. What CLISH command provides this output?

A.

show configuration all

B.

show confd configuration

C.

show confd configuration all

D.

show configuration

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Question # 17

Which limitation of CoreXL is overcome by using (mitigated by) Multi-Queue?

A.

There is no traffic queue to be handled

B.

Several NICs can use one traffic queue by one CPU

C.

Each NIC has several traffic queues that are handled by multiple CPU cores

D.

Each NIC has one traffic queue that is handled by one CPU

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Question # 18

Your boss wants you to closely monitor an employee suspected of transferring company secrets to the competition. The IT department discovered the suspect installed a WinSCP client in order to use encrypted communication. Which of the following methods is BEST to accomplish this task?

A.

Use SmartView Tracker to follow his actions by filtering log entries that feature the WinSCP destination port. Then, export the corresponding entries to a separate log file for documentation.

B.

Use SmartDashboard to add a rule in the firewall Rule Base that matches his IP address, and those of potential targets and suspicious protocols. Apply the alert action or customized messaging.

C.

Watch his IP in SmartView Monitor by setting an alert action to any packet that matches your Rule Base and his IP address for inbound and outbound traffic.

D.

Send the suspect an email with a keylogging Trojan attached, to get direct information about his wrongdoings.

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Question # 19

The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

A.

Secure Internal Communication (SIC)

B.

Restart Daemons if they fail

C.

Transfer messages between Firewall processes

D.

Pulls application monitoring status

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Question # 20

Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.

What is the most likely reason?

A.

Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.

B.

Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.

C.

SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.

D.

Authentication failed because Vanessa’s username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.

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Question # 21

SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identity events:

A.

Matching a log against each event definition

B.

Create an event candidate

C.

Matching a log against local exclusions

D.

Matching a log against global exclusions

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Question # 22

Where is the “Hit Count” feature enabled or disabled in SmartConsole?

A.

On the Policy Package

B.

On each Security Gateway

C.

On the Policy layer

D.

In Global Properties for the Security Management Server

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Question # 23

What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?

A.

When a box is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

B.

When an Interface is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

C.

When an Interface fails, Effective Priority = Priority - Priority Delta

D.

When a box fails, Effective Priority = Priority - Priority Delta

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Question # 24

Fill in the bank: In Office mode, a Security Gateway assigns a remote client to an IP address once___________.

A.

the user connects and authenticates

B.

office mode is initiated

C.

the user requests a connection

D.

the user connects

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Question # 25

Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:

A.

Only when there is Multicast solution set up

B.

There is Load Sharing solution set up

C.

Only when there is Unicast solution set up

D.

There is High Availability solution set up

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Question # 26

Fill in the blank: ____________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.

A.

sysdown

B.

exit

C.

halt

D.

shut-down

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Question # 27

When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server using the SmartConsole the first administrator to connect has a lock on:

A.

Only the objects being modified in the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using a special session as long as they all connect from the same LAN network.

B.

The entire Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes only if the first administrator switches to Read-only.

C.

The entire Management Database and all sessions and other administrators can connect only as Read-only.

D.

Only the objects being modified in his session of the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using different sessions.

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Question # 28

Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

A.

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

B.

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

C.

Is configured using cpconfig

D.

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

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Question # 29

Fill in the blanks: There are ________ types of software containers ________.

A.

Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security

B.

Three; Security gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management

C.

Two; security management and endpoint security

D.

Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

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Question # 30

Fill in the blank: To build an effective Security Policy, use a ________ and _______ rule.

A.

Cleanup; stealth

B.

Stealth; implicit

C.

Cleanup; default

D.

Implicit; explicit

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Question # 31

Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole?

A.

Security questions

B.

Check Point password

C.

SecurID

D.

RADIUS

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Question # 32

John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimize malware infection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19.

John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his desktop with a static IP (10.0.0.19). He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server.

To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:

1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs the policy.

2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location.

3) Changes from static IP address to DHCP for the client PC.

What should John request when he cannot access the web server from his laptop?

A.

John should lock and unlock his computer

B.

Investigate this as a network connectivity issue

C.

The access should be changed to authenticate the user instead of the PC

D.

John should install the Identity Awareness Agent

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Question # 33

Choose the correct statement regarding Implicit Rules.

A.

To edit the Implicit rules you go to: Launch Button > Policy > Global Properties > Firewall.

B.

Implied rules are fixed rules that you cannot change.

C.

You can directly edit the Implicit rules by double-clicking on a specific Implicit rule.

D.

You can edit the Implicit rules but only if requested by Check Point support personnel.

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Question # 34

An internal router is sending UDP keep-alive packets that are being encapsulated with GRE and sent through your R77 Security Gateway to a partner site. A rule for GRE traffic is configured for ACCEPT/LOG. Although the keep-alive packets are being sent every minute, a search through the SmartView Tracker logs for GRE traffic only shows one entry for the whole day (early in the morning after a Policy install).

Your partner site indicates they are successfully receiving the GRE encapsulated keep-alive packets on the 1-minute interval.

If GRE encapsulation is turned off on the router, SmartView Tracker shows a log entry for the UDP keep-alive packet every minute.

Which of the following is the BEST explanation for this behavior?

A.

The setting Log does not capture this level of detail for GRE. Set the rule tracking action to Audit since certain types of traffic can only be tracked this way.

B.

The log unification process is using a LUUID (Log Unification Unique Identification) that has become corrupt. Because it is encrypted, the R77 Security Gateway cannot distinguish between GRE sessions. This is a known issue with GRE. Use IPSEC instead of the non-standard GRE protocol for encapsulation.

C.

The Log Server log unification process unifies all log entries from the Security Gateway on a specific connection into only one log entry in the SmartView Tracker. GRE traffic has a 10 minute session timeout, thus each keep-alive packet is considered part of the original logged connection at the beginning of the day.

D.

The Log Server is failing to log GRE traffic properly because it is VPN traffic. Disable all VPN configuration to the partner site to enable proper logging.

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Question # 35

What port is used for communication to the User Center with SmartUpdate?

A.

CPMI 200

B.

TCP 8080

C.

HTTP 80

D.

HTTPS 443

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Question # 36

What is the Manual Client Authentication TELNET port?

A.

23

B.

264

C.

900

D.

259

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Question # 37

There are 4 ways to use the Management API for creating host object with R80 Management API. Which one is NOT correct?

A.

Using Web Services

B.

Using Mgmt_cli tool

C.

Using CLISH

D.

Using SmartConsole GUI console

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Question # 38

Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

A.

Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.

B.

Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.

C.

Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the company’s security policy.

D.

Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk levels.

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Question # 39

Which software blade enables Access Control policies to accept, drop, or limit web site access based on user, group, and/or machine?

A.

Application Control

B.

Data Awareness

C.

Identity Awareness

D.

Threat Emulation

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Question # 40

What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

A.

URL Filtering and Network

B.

Network and Threat Prevention

C.

Application Control and URL Filtering

D.

Network and Application Control

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Question # 41

From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

A.

Verify a Security Policy

B.

Open a terminal shell

C.

Add a static route

D.

View Security Management GUI Clients

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Question # 42

Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?

A.

System backup

B.

Save Configuration

C.

Migrate

D.

snapshot

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Question # 43

Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?

A.

Password

B.

Certificate

C.

MD5

D.

Pre-shared secret

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Question # 44

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status:

Choose the BEST answer.

A.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway

B.

There is a blade reporting a problem

C.

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction

D.

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

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Question # 45

What is the SOLR database for?

A.

Used for full text search and enables powerful matching capabilities

B.

Writes data to the database and full text search

C.

Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server

D.

Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database

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Question # 46

What SmartEvent component creates events?

A.

Consolidation Policy

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

SmartEvent Policy

D.

SmartEvent GUI

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Question # 47

Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?

A.

Application Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

Advanced Networking Blade

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Question # 48

Which backup utility captures the most information and tends to create the largest archives?

A.

backup

B.

snapshot

C.

Database Revision

D.

migrate export

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Question # 49

If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to “First”, what is the reason Jorge cannot see any logs?

A.

Log Implied Rule was not selected on Global Properties.

B.

Log Implied Rule was not set correctly on the track column on the rules base.

C.

Track log column is set to none.

D.

Track log column is set to Log instead of Full Log.

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Question # 50

Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

A.

There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

B.

There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.

C.

There is one default user that can be deleted.

D.

There are two default users that cannot be deleted and one SmartConsole Administrator.

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Question # 51

Can a Check Point gateway translate both source IP address and destination IP address in a given packet?

A.

Yes.

B.

No.

C.

Yes, but only when using Automatic NAT.

D.

Yes, but only when using Manual NAT.

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Question # 52

Which of these components does NOT require a Security Gateway R77 license?

A.

Security Management Server

B.

Check Point Gateway

C.

SmartConsole

D.

SmartUpdate upgrading/patching

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Question # 53

Fill in the blank: When LDAP is integrated with Check Point Security Management, it is then referred to as _______

A.

UserCheck

B.

User Directory

C.

User Administration

D.

User Center

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Question # 54

Which authentication scheme requires a user to possess a token?

A.

TACACS

B.

SecurID

C.

Check Point password

D.

RADIUS

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Question # 55

What is the potential downside or drawback to choosing the Standalone deployment option instead of the Distributed deployment option?

A.

degrades performance as the Security Policy grows in size

B.

requires additional Check Point appliances

C.

requires additional software subscription

D.

increases cost

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Question # 56

Provide very wide coverage for all products and protocols, with noticeable performance impact.

How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level? Select the BEST answer.

A.

Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.

B.

Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.

C.

The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profile. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.

D.

Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.

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Question # 57

R80 Security Management Server can be installed on which of the following operating systems?

A.

Gaia only

B.

Gaia, SPLAT, Windows Server only

C.

Gaia, SPLAT, Windows Server and IPSO only

D.

Gaia and SPLAT only

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Question # 58

The Captive Portal tool:

A.

Acquires identities from unidentified users.

B.

Is only used for guest user authentication.

C.

Allows access to users already identified.

D.

Is deployed from the Identity Awareness page in the Global Properties settings.

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Question # 59

When using LDAP as an authentication method for Identity Awareness, the query:

A.

Requires client and server side software.

B.

Prompts the user to enter credentials.

C.

Requires administrators to specifically allow LDAP traffic to and from the LDAP Server and the Security Gateway.

D.

Is transparent, requiring no client or server side software, or client intervention.

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Question # 60

Look at the following screenshot and select the BEST answer.

A.

Clients external to the Security Gateway can download archive files from FTP_Ext server using FTP.

B.

Internal clients can upload and download any-files to FTP_Ext-server using FTP.

C.

Internal clients can upload and download archive-files to FTP_Ext server using FTP.

D.

Clients external to the Security Gateway can upload any files to the FTP_Ext-server using FTP.

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Question # 61

Your bank's distributed R77 installation has Security Gateways up for renewal. Which SmartConsole application will tell you which Security Gateways have licenses that will expire within the next 30 days?

A.

SmartView Tracker

B.

SmartPortal

C.

SmartUpdate

D.

SmartDashboard

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Question # 62

At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

A.

Upon creation of a certificate

B.

During the primary Security Management Server installation process.

C.

When an administrator decides to create one.

D.

When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.

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Question # 63

Which of the following is NOT an element of VPN Simplified Mode and VPN Communities?

A.

“Encrypt” action in the Rule Base

B.

Permanent Tunnels

C.

“VPN” column in the Rule Base

D.

Configuration checkbox “Accept all encrypted traffic”

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Question # 64

Which of the following is NOT a set of Regulatory Requirements related to Information Security?

A.

ISO 37001

B.

Sarbanes Oxley (SOX)

C.

HIPPA

D.

PCI

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Question # 65

Study the Rule base and Client Authentication Action properties screen.

After being authenticated by the Security Gateways, a user starts a HTTP connection to a Web site. What happens when the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line? The:

A.

user is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateways again.

B.

FTP data connection is dropped after the user is authenticated successfully.

C.

user is prompted to authenticate from that FTP site only, and does not need to enter his username and password for Client Authentication

D.

FTP connection is dropped by Rule 2.

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Question # 66

You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. In order to see how efficient your firewall Rule Base is, you would like to see how many often the particular rules match. Where can you see it? Give the BEST answer.

A.

In the SmartView Tracker, if you activate the column Matching Rate.

B.

In SmartReporter, in the section Firewall Blade – Activity > Network Activity with information concerning Top Matched Logged Rules.

C.

SmartReporter provides this information in the section Firewall Blade – Security > Rule Base Analysis with information concerning Top Matched Logged Rules.

D.

It is not possible to see it directly. You can open SmartDashboard and select UserDefined in the Track column. Afterwards, you need to create your own program with an external counter.

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Question # 67

You are conducting a security audit. While reviewing configuration files and logs, you notice logs accepting POP3 traffic, but you do not see a rule allowing POP3 traffic in the Rule Base. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A.

The POP3 rule is disabled.

B.

POP3 is accepted in Global Properties.

C.

The POP3 rule is hidden.

D.

POP3 is one of 3 services (POP3, IMAP, and SMTP) accepted by the default mail object in R77.

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Question # 68

You have enabled “Full Log” as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?

A.

Logging has disk space issues. Change logging storage options on the logging server or Security Management Server properties and install database.

B.

Data Awareness is not enabled.

C.

Identity Awareness is not enabled.

D.

Logs are arriving from Pre-R80 gateways.

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Question # 69

What are the two types of address translation rules?

A.

Translated packet and untranslated packet

B.

Untranslated packet and manipulated packet

C.

Manipulated packet and original packet

D.

Original packet and translated packet

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Question # 70

Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create R80 user definitions on a(an) ___________ Server.

A.

NT domain

B.

SMTP

C.

LDAP

D.

SecurID

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Question # 71

What will be the effect of running the following command on the Security Management Server?

A.

Remove the installed Security Policy.

B.

Remove the local ACL lists.

C.

No effect.

D.

Reset SIC on all gateways.

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Question # 72

The Gaia operating system supports which routing protocols?

A.

BGP, OSPF, RIP

B.

BGP, OSPF, EIGRP, PIM, IGMP

C.

BGP, OSPF, RIP, PIM, IGMP

D.

BGP, OSPF, RIP, EIGRP

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Question # 73

Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?

A.

Application Dictionary

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application Library

D.

CPApp

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Question # 74

Which application should you use to install a contract file?

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

WebUI

C.

SmartUpdate

D.

SmartProvisioning

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Question # 75

What are the two high availability modes?

A.

Load Sharing and Legacy

B.

Traditional and New

C.

Active and Standby

D.

New and Legacy

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Question # 76

Tina is a new administrator who is currently reviewing the new Check Point R80 Management console interface. In the Gateways view, she is reviewing the Summary screen as in the screenshot below. What as an 'Open Server'?

A.

Check Point software deployed on a non-Check Point appliance.

B.

The Open Server Consortium approved Server Hardware used for the purpose of Security and Availability.

C.

A check Point Management Server deployed using the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Server and Security deployment model.

D.

A check Point Management Server software using the Open SSL.

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Question # 77

Which options are given on features, when editing a Role on Gaia Platform?

A.

Read/Write, Read Only

B.

Read/Write, Read only, None

C.

Read/Write, None

D.

Read Only, None

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Question # 78

What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?

A.

Low Security and No Screening above Network Layer

B.

Application Independence

C.

High Performance

D.

Scalability

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