ASCP-MLT Exam Dumps - MEDICAL LABORATORY TECHNICIAN - MLT(ASCP)
Each of the drugs/drug classes listed above have been known to cause drug-induced hemolytic anemia, although cephalosporins are the MOST COMMON cause. Cephalosporins can cause drug-induced hemolytic anemia when a patient produces antibodies to the particular cephalosporin drug in the presence of red blood cells. The drugs can alter the membrane appearance of the red blood cells, causing the body to mistake them as foreign. Complement becomes activated due to these antibodies; red cells are then destroyed causing hemolytic anemia. Dark urine, caused by intravascular hemolysis, is one of the most common symptoms associated with this condition.
Which one of the following drugs/drug classes is the MOST COMMON cause of drug-induced hemolytic anemia?
Type I hyperlipoproteinemia is a form of hyperlipoproteinemia associated with deficiencies of lipoprotein lipase. Hyperlipoproteinemia type II is the most common form and is classified into type IIa and type IIb, depending on whether there is elevation in the triglyceride level in addition to LDL cholesterol. Hyperlipoproteinemia type III is associated with high chylomicrons and IDL. Hyperlipoproteinemia type IV is assoicated with high triglycerides. It is also known as hypertriglyceridemia. Hyperlipoproteinemia type V is similar to type I, but with high VLDL in addition to chylomicrons.
An obese adult with premature arteriosclerosis is seen in the clinic. When her serum is tested no chylomicrons are present, LDL are normal and VLDL are increased. There is an increase in triglycerides and slight increase in cholesterol. Lipoprotein electrophoresis reveals a heavy pre-beta band. She has no skin rash and uric acid is increased. This patient has a hyperlipoproteinemia with the MOST likely type of:
Serum ferritin is a good indicator of iron deficiency. However, it acts like an acute phase reactant, being elevated in a large number of conditions. Patients who have iron deficiency as well as another condition that elevates serum ferritin levels may therefore have normal or even elevated serum ferritin levels.
Which one of the following statements about serum ferritin are true:
The steps in the PCR process are:
1. Denaturation (Turning double stranded DNA into single strands.)
2. Annealing/Hybrization (Attachment of primers to the single DNA strands.)
3. Extension (Creating the complementary strand to produce new double stranded DNA.)
What is the first step of the PCR reaction?
What are the certification requirements for clinical laboratory professionals?
Fusarium species is the most likely associated with mycotic keratitis.
Trichophyton rubrum is a dermatophyte that commonly causes an itching, scaling skin infection of the feet, known as tinea pedis. Scedosporium apiospermum is commonly associated with sinusitis. Aspergillus niger typically causes otitis externa and can also be associated with sinusitis.
Which of the following species or organisms is the most likely to be the cause of mycotic keratitis (fungal eye infection)?
Anti-A, anti-P, anti-Leb, and anti-M all react best at 4o C as they are predominantly IgM antibodies. Other antibody group choices above include IgG antibodies such as anti-K, anti-s, anti-S, and anti-Fya, anti-Lub, etc. which react best at 37o C.
Which of the following groups of antibodies generally reacts most strongly at 4o C: