CRISC Exam Dumps - Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control

Lack of organizational policy regarding open source software should be the greatest concern for an organization that uses open source software applications, as it may expose the organization to legal, security, and operational risks. Open source software is software that is freely available and can be modified and distributed by anyone, subject to certain conditions and licenses. An organizational policy regarding open source software should define the criteria and procedures for selecting, acquiring, using, and maintaining open source software, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders involved. Lack of reliability, lack of monitoring, and lack of professional support are not the greatest concerns, as they can be addressed by implementing quality assurance, configuration management, and community engagement practices for open source software. References = CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q & As, question 214; CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 214.

Regulatory requirements should be the primary basis for deciding whether to disclose information related to risk events that impact external stakeholders, because they define the rules or standards that the organization must comply with to meet the expectations of the regulators, such as government agencies or industry bodies, and to avoid legal or reputational consequences. A risk event is an occurrence or incident that may cause harm or damage to the organization or its objectives, such as a natural disaster, a cyberattack, or a human error. An external stakeholder is a person or group that has an interest or influence in the organization or its activities, but is not part of the organization, such as customers, suppliers, partners, investors, or regulators. Disclosing information related to risk events that impact external stakeholders is a process of communicating or reporting the relevant facts or details of the risk events to the affected or interested parties. Disclosing information related to risk events may have benefits, such as maintaining trust, transparency, and accountability, but it may also have drawbacks, such as exposing vulnerabilities, losing competitive advantage, or inviting litigation. Therefore, regulatory requirements should be the primary basis for deciding whether to disclose information, as they provide the legal and ethical obligations and boundaries for the disclosure process. Stakeholder preferences, contractual requirements, and management assertions are all possible factors for deciding whether to disclose information related to risk events, but they are not the primary basis, as they may vary or conflict depending on the situation or context, and may not override the regulatory requirements. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 158

Defining risk response options is performed after a risk assessment is completed. A risk assessment is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that affect the enterprise’s objectives and operations. After a risk assessment is completed, the enterprise needs to define the risk response options, which are the actions that can be taken to address the risks.The risk response options include accepting, avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or exploiting the risks. Defining risk response options helps to select the most appropriate and effective strategy to manage the risks. Defining risk taxonomy, identifying vulnerabilities, and conducting an impact analysis are performed before or during a risk assessment, not after. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.4, page 541

1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 644.

A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, responses, and owners. The owner for each risk scenario is the person or group whohas the authority and accountability to manage the risk and its response. The best way to identify the owner for each risk scenario in a risk register is to map the identified risk factors tospecific business processes. Risk factors are the internal and external variables that influence the occurrence and impact of risks. Business processes are the activities that produce value for the enterprise, such as sales, marketing, production, or delivery. By mapping the risk factors to the business processes, the risk practitioner can determine which business process is affected by or contributes to the risk, and who is responsible for the business process. The owner for each risk scenario should be the person or group who is responsible for the business process that is associated with the risk. The other options are not the best way to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as they involve different criteria or methods:

Determining which departments contribute most to risk means that the risk practitioner evaluates the degree of involvement or exposure of each department to the risk. This may not be a reliable or consistent way to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as the risk may span across multiple departments, or the department may not have the authority or accountability to manage the risk.

Allocating responsibility for risk factors equally to asset owners means that the risk practitioner assigns the same level of responsibility to each person or group who owns an asset that is affected by or contributes to the risk. An asset is a resource that has value for the enterprise, such as hardware, software, data, or people. This may not be a fair or effective way to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as the asset owners may have different levels of involvement or exposure to the risk, or may not have the authority or accountability to manage the risk.

Determining resource dependency of assets means that the risk practitioner analyzes the relationship and interdependence of the assets that are affected by or contribute to the risk. This may help to identify the potential impact or likelihood of the risk, but it does not directly help to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as the resource dependency may not reflect the authority or accountability to manage the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1.1, pp. 95-96.

The correct answer is D because data anonymization best mitigates privacy risk while still enabling testing. It allows the organization to use realistic data sets for development or testing purposes without exposing identifiable personal information. This supports business needs while reducing the chance of privacy violations.

The other options are less effective for this specific purpose:

A. Data classification helps determine protection requirements, but it does not by itself make the data safe for testing.

B. Data sanitization can remove sensitive data, but anonymization is the more direct privacy-preserving method for retaining usable test data.

C. Data encryption protects data from unauthorized access, but the data remains personal information once decrypted for testing.

Exact Extracts supporting the answer:

“A privacy impact assessment can help enterprises weigh the benefits of their data processing activities against risk to determine the appropriate response.”

“The MAIN benefit of information classification is that it helps select security measures proportional to risk.”

“To determine the level of protection required for securing personally identifiable information a risk practitioner should PRIMARILY consider the sensitivity property of the information.”

“The MOST important principle of data protection that a risk practitioner should advocate for is that data should be accurate.”

These extracts support that personal information should be processed in a way that reduces privacy risk while preserving appropriate business use. For testing, data anonymization is the best answer.

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QUESTION NO: 101 [Risk Assessment]

Which of the following is the FIRST step in a risk assessment process?

A. Identifying risk owners

B. Documenting vulnerabilities

C. Assessing the likelihood of threats

D. Identifying assets

Answer: D

The correct answer is D because the first step in a risk assessment process is identifying assets . Before vulnerabilities can be documented, threats assessed, or owners assigned, the organization must first know what systems, data, applications, infrastructure, or business resources are in scope for the assessment.

The other options come later in the process:

A. Identifying risk owners follows once the assets, processes, and risks are understood.

B. Documenting vulnerabilities requires prior understanding of the assets being assessed.

C. Assessing the likelihood of threats also occurs after assets and scenarios have been identified.

Exact Extracts supporting the answer:

“The FIRST step in identifying and assessing IT risk is to gather information on the current and future environment.”

“The PRIMARY reason for determining the security boundary prior to conducting a risk assessment is to identify the scope of the risk assessment.”

“Understanding the system and its subsystems is the MOST effective method to conduct a risk assessment on an internal system in an enterprise.”

“Risk assessment is the risk management activity that initially identifies critical business functions and key business risk.”

These extracts support that risk assessment begins with understanding the environment and scope, which in this question is best represented by identifying assets .

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QUESTION NO: 102 [Risk Assessment]

A risk assessment has determined that an organization is highly susceptible to a vulnerability in its IT infrastructure. Which of the following is MOST important to communicate to the board?

A. Results of the most recent penetration test

B. Impact to the organization if the vulnerability is exploited

C. Results of a root cause analysis of the vulnerability

D. Open source intelligence reports on successful attacks

Answer: B

The correct answer is B because the board needs to understand the business impact to the organization if the vulnerability is exploited. The board’s focus is strategic oversight, organizational exposure, and the effect on mission, operations, and enterprise objectives rather than detailed technical findings.

The other options are less appropriate for the board:

A. Results of the most recent penetration test are useful technical evidence, but they are not the most important board-level message.

C. Results of a root cause analysis of the vulnerability are more useful for management and remediation teams.

D. Open source intelligence reports on successful attacks may provide context, but the key issue for the board is business impact.

Exact Extracts supporting the answer:

“IT risk is measured by its impact on business operations.”

“The primary reason risk professionals conduct risk assessments is to identify risk with the highest business impact.”

“The board of directors is accountable for overall enterprise strategy for risk governance.”

“Dashboards are MOST suitable for reporting IT-related business risk to senior management.”

These extracts support that board communication should focus on business impact. Therefore, the most important thing to communicate is the impact to the organization if the vulnerability is exploited .

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QUESTION NO: 103 [Governance]

Which of the following is MOST important for ensuring anonymous reporting of non-compliant activity?

A. Establishing an employee feedback channel

B. Establishing a dedicated compliance function

C. Implementing an incentive program

D. Implementing homomorphic encryption

Answer: A

The correct answer is A because the most important factor for ensuring anonymous reporting of non-compliant activity is a trusted employee feedback/reporting channel . Anonymous reporting depends on having a practical and secure method for individuals to raise concerns without exposing their identity.

The other options are less suitable:

B. Establishing a dedicated compliance function may support oversight, but does not by itself enable anonymous reporting.

C. Implementing an incentive program may encourage reporting, but it does not ensure anonymity.

D. Implementing homomorphic encryption is not the practical organizational control needed for anonymous misconduct reporting.

Exact Extracts supporting the answer:

“The greatest benefit of a risk-aware culture is that issues are escalated when suspicious activity is noticed.”

“The best proactive approach for practicing professional ethics within an enterprise is to provide ethics awareness training.”

“The most effective way to support adherence to an enterprise ' s code of ethics is by ensuring periodic training evaluation and attestation of employees.”

“Developing and practicing ethical behavior within an enterprise contributes the most to building the risk culture.”

These extracts support that issues should be escalated and reported. The most important mechanism for anonymous reporting is establishing an employee feedback channel .

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QUESTION NO: 104 [Risk Response and Mitigation]

Which of the following is MOST important to document when accepting risk?

A. Risk owner

B. Risk identification date

C. Risk mitigation date

D. Risk impact level

Answer: A

The correct answer is A because when accepting risk, the most important item to document is the risk owner . Risk acceptance must be tied to clear accountability. The organization must know who has the authority to accept the risk and who remains accountable for monitoring and managing it afterward.

The other options are important supporting details, but not the most important:

B. Risk identification date is useful for tracking, but not as critical as accountability.

C. Risk mitigation date may not apply if the risk is being accepted rather than mitigated.

D. Risk impact level is important to understand the risk, but acceptance must ultimately be assigned to an accountable owner.

Exact Extracts supporting the answer:

“Accountability for a risk treatment plan lies with the risk owner.”

“The PRIMARY objective of risk reporting is to provide the risk owner with information to initiate risk response.”

“For an organizational business unit the most accurate description of risk-related roles and responsibilities is that the management team owns the risk and is responsible for identifying assessing and mitigating risk and reporting to the appropriate support functions and the board of directors.”

“During the risk assessment process it is most important to establish a clear line of accountability to ensure that risk ownership is assigned to the appropriate level.”

These extracts directly support that risk acceptance must be tied to documented accountability. Therefore, the most important item to document is the risk owner .

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QUESTION NO: 105 [Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting]

Which of the following is the MOST effective way for an organization to track emerging risk?

A. Conduct peer benchmarking

B. Adjust the risk taxonomy

C. Capture it in the risk register

D. Re-perform relevant risk assessments

Answer: C

The correct answer is C because the most effective way to track emerging risk is to capture it in the risk register . The risk register is the primary enterprise tool for documenting identified risks, their status, ownership, mitigation actions, and ongoing changes over time. Once an emerging risk is identified, placing it in the risk register ensures it can be monitored, communicated, prioritized, and acted upon.

The other options are less effective as the primary tracking mechanism:

A. Conduct peer benchmarking may provide context, but it does not serve as the formal internal tracking tool.

B. Adjust the risk taxonomy may help classification, but not active tracking of a specific emerging risk.

D. Re-perform relevant risk assessments may be necessary later, but the first and most effective way to track the risk is to record it formally.

Exact Extracts supporting the answer:

“The risk register is the best tool for identifying changes in an enterprise’s risk profile.”

“The MAIN reason an enterprise maintains a risk register is to act as a repository of identified risk for decision-making.”

“The BEST tool for documenting the status of risk mitigation and risk ownership at the enterprise level is the risk register.”

“An emerging risk should be added to the risk register by the risk practitioner when the activity that triggers the risk initiates.”

“An updated risk register ensures effective prioritization and treatment of risk.”

These extracts directly support that emerging risk should be formally documented and tracked through the risk register .

Whendata owners inspect and approveincoming data, it provides assurance of its completeness and accuracy, as they are accountable for the integrity of the data under their ownership.

A recovery time objective (RTO) is the maximum acceptable time or duration that a business process or function can be disrupted or unavailable due to a disaster or incident, before it causes unacceptable or intolerable consequences for the organization. It is usually expressed in hours, days, or weeks, and it is aligned with the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery objectives and requirements.

The primary factor in determining a RTO is the cost of downtime due to a disaster, which is the estimated loss or damage that the organization may suffer if a business process or function is disrupted or unavailable for a certain period of time. The cost of downtime can be expressed in terms of financial, operational, reputational, or legal consequences, and it can help the organization to assess the impact and urgency of the disaster, and to decide on the appropriate recovery strategy and resources.

The other options are not the primary factors in determining a RTO, because they do not address the fundamental question of how long the organization can tolerate the disruption or unavailability of a business process or function.

The cost of offsite backup premises is the cost of acquiring, maintaining, or using an alternative or secondary location or facility that can be used to resume or continue the business process or function in case of a disaster or incident. The cost of offsite backup premises is important to consider when selecting or implementing a recovery strategy, but it is not the primary factor in determining a RTO, because it does not indicate the impact or urgency of the disaster, and it may not reflect the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery objectives and requirements.

The cost of testing the business continuity plan is the cost of conducting, evaluating, or improving the tests or exercises that are performed to verify or validate the effectiveness and efficiency of the business continuity plan, which is the document that describes the actions and procedures that the organization will take to recover or restore the business process or function in case of a disaster or incident. The cost of testing the business continuity plan is important to consider when developing or updating the business continuity plan, but it is not the primary factor in determining a RTO, because it does not indicate the impact or urgency of the disaster, and it may not reflect the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery objectives and requirements.

The response time of the emergency action plan is the time or duration that it takes for the organization to initiate or execute the emergency action plan, which is the document that describes the immediate actions and procedures that the organization will take to protect the life, health, and safety of the people, and to minimize the damage or loss of the assets,in case of adisaster or incident. The response time of the emergency action plan is important to consider when preparing or reviewing the emergency action plan, but it is not the primary factor in determining a RTO, because it does not indicate the impact or urgency of the disaster, and it may not reflect the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery objectives and requirements. References =

ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 62-63, 66-67, 70-71, 74-75, 78-79

ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 165

CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep

 The number of projects going live without a security review is the best key control indicator (KCI) to indicate whether security requirements are identified and managed throughout a project life cycle, because it measures the compliance and effectiveness of the security review process. A security review is a process that ensures that the security requirements are defined, implemented, tested, and verified for each project, and that any security risks or issues are identified and resolved before the project is deployed. The number of projects going live without a security review should be minimized or eliminated, as it indicates afailure or weakness of the security review process. The other options are not the best KCIs, because they do not directly measure the identification and management of security requirements. The number of employees completing project-specific security training, the number of security projects started in core departments, and the number of security-related status reports submitted by project managers areexamples of input or output indicators that measure the activities or results of the project, but not the security requirements. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions