CCP Exam Dumps - Certified Cost Professional (CCP) Exam

Given Scenario:

The question is asking what a subcontractor might achieve by using an unbalanced bid in the structure shown as Plan A.

An unbalanced bid is a bidding strategy where the subcontractor assigns higher costs to early stages of work. This allows the subcontractor to receive more money early in the project, reducing their financial risk and providing better cash flow.

The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is calculated using the formula:

SPI=Earned Value (EV)Planned Value (PV)\text{SPI} = \frac{\text{Earned Value (EV)}}{\text{Planned Value (PV)}}SPI=Planned Value (PV)Earned Value (EV)​

Given:

Total Budgeted Hours = 12,000 hours

Planned Completion = 75%

Percent Complete = 66%

EV=12,000×0.66=7,920 hours\text{EV} = 12,000 \times 0.66 = 7,920 \text{ hours}EV=12,000×0.66=7,920 hours PV=12,000×0.75=9,000 hours\text{PV} = 12,000 \times 0.75 = 9,000 \text{ hours}PV=12,000×0.75=9,000 hours SPI=7,9209,000≈0.88\text{SPI} = \frac{7,920}{9,000} \approx 0.88SPI=9,0007,920​≈0.88

So, the correct answer isB. 0.88.

Estimate at Completion (EAC)is a forecasting tool in EVM that predicts the total cost of the project at completion based on current performance.

Key Points:

EAC Formula:

One common method to calculate EAC is:

EAC = ACWP + (BAC - BCWP)

Where:

ACWP is the Actual Cost of Work Performed,

BAC is the Budget at Completion,

BCWP is the Budgeted Cost of Work Performed.

Explanation:

This formula assumes that the remaining work will be performed at the budgeted rate (i.e., future work will follow the planned performance), and it adjusts the total estimate by adding the cost of the remaining work to the actual costs incurred so far.

Conclusion:The correct answer isD. ACWP + (BAC - BCWP)because this method provides a reliable estimate for the total project cost at completion, considering current performance.

To find the value of equal year-end withdrawals made for 10 years with an initial investment of $50 at 6% interest, you use the annuity formula:

A=PV×i×(1+i)n(1+i)n−1A = \frac{PV \times i \times (1 + i)^n}{(1 + i)^n - 1}A=(1+i)n−1PV×i×(1+i)n​

Where:

AAA is the annuity payment (annual withdrawal)

PVPVPV is the present value ($50)

iii is the interest rate (6% or 0.06)

nnn is the number of periods (10 years)

A=50×0.06×(1+0.06)10(1+0.06)10−1≈5.35A = \frac{50 \times 0.06 \times (1 + 0.06)^{10}}{(1 + 0.06)^{10} - 1} \approx 5.35A=(1+0.06)10−150×0.06×(1+0.06)10​≈5.35

The fast track method in project management is a technique that involves overlapping the phases of engineering, procurement, and construction. Instead of completing these phases sequentially (which is typical in traditional project management), fast tracking allows for simultaneous work on these phases with appropriate overlap. The goal is to reduce the overall project duration by eliminating delays and streamlining the work into a logical and efficient sequence. This method is often used in projects where time is a critical factor.

Option Bdescribes a traditional sequential approach, not fast tracking.

Option Coutlines the process of project scheduling and planning, which involves sequencing activities but does not address the simultaneous execution of phases.

Option Dfocuses on schedule revision and constraint identification, not the simultaneous execution characteristic of fast tracking.

Thus,A. Simultaneous working engineering, procurement, and constructionis the correct answer.

Given Scenario:

You need to calculate the future value of a series of annual investments of $20,000 over 10 years at a 10% interest rate.

This requires calculating the future value of an annuity. The formula is:

FV=P×((1+r)n−1r)FV = P \times \left(\frac{(1 + r)^n - 1}{r}\right)FV=P×(r(1+r)n−1​)

where:

P=20,000P = 20,000P=20,000 (annual payment)

r=0.10r = 0.10r=0.10 (interest rate)

n=10n = 10n=10 (number of years)

FV=20,000×((1+0.10)10−10.10)=20,000×(2.5937−10.10)=20,000×15.937≈318,740FV = 20,000 \times \left(\frac{(1 + 0.10)^{10} - 1}{0.10}\right) = 20,000 \times \left(\frac{2.5937 - 1}{0.10}\right) = 20,000 \times 15.937 \approx 318,740FV=20,000×(0.10(1+0.10)10−1​)=20,000×(0.102.5937−1​)=20,000×15.937≈318,740

Answer:B. $318,740

The correct calculation of annual depreciation in a capital recovery with salvage analysis requires the use of a specific depreciation method, which factors in the initial cost, salvage value, and useful life of the asset. In this scenario, the correct annual depreciation is$5,343 per year. This figure is calculated based on the method chosen for depreciation (e.g., straight-line, declining balance, etc.) and accurately reflects the amount that should be allocated each year to account for the wear and tear or obsolescence of the asset.

To calculate the annual rate of return on the investment, you can use the formula for the compound annual growth rate (CAGR):

CAGR=(FVPV)1n−1\text{CAGR} = \left(\frac{FV}{PV}\right)^{\frac{1}{n}} - 1CAGR=(PVFV​)n1​−1

Where:

FVFVFV is the future value ($6,000)

PVPVPV is the present value ($3,000)

nnn is the number of years (8 years)

CAGR=(60003000)18−1≈(2)18−1≈0.091or9.1%\text{CAGR} = \left(\frac{6000}{3000}\right)^{\frac{1}{8}} - 1 \approx (2)^{\frac{1}{8}} - 1 \approx 0.091 or 9.1\%CAGR=(30006000​)81​−1≈(2)81​−1≈0.091or9.1%